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UPSC Civil Services (IAS) Prelims 2015: With Answer key

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam

Following is the IAS Prelims Exam 2015 General Studies Question Paper II (CSAT) Set C along with UPSC Answers:


Passage 1

The richer States have a responsibility to cut down carbon emissions and promote clean energy investments. These are the States that got electricity, grew faster and now have high per capita income, making them capable of sharing India’s burden of becoming eco-friendly. Delhi, for example, can help by generating its own clean electricity using solar rooftop panels or even help poor States finance their clean energy projects. It is no secret that State Electricity Boards, which control 95% of the distribution network, are neck-deep in losses. These losses further discourage State utilities from adopting renewable energy as it is more expensive than fossil fuels.

1.    Which among the following is the most logical and rational assumption that can be made from the above passage?

(a) The richer States must lead in the production and adoption of renewable energy.
(b) The poor States always have to depend on rich States for electricity.
(c) The State Electricity Boards can improve their finances by undertaking clean energy projects.
(d) The high economic disparity between the rich and poor States is the major cause of high carbon emissions in India.

Answer. a


Passage – 2

Set against a rural backdrop, ‘Stench of kerosene’ is the story of a couple, Guleri and Manak, who have been happily married for several years but do not have a child. Manak’s mother is desperate to have a grandchild to carry on the family name. Hence, she gets Manak remarried in Guleri’s absence. Manak, who acts as a reluctant but passive spectator, is meanwhile, informed by a friend that Guleri, on hearing about her husband’s second marriage, poured kerosene on her clothes and set fire to them. Manak is heartbroken and begins to live as if he were a dead man. When his second wife delivers a son, manak states at athe child for a long time an blurts out, “Take him away ! He stinks of kerosene.”

2. This is a sensitive issue-based story which tries to sensitise the readers about

(a) Male chauvinism and infidelity
(b)     Love and betrayal
(c)     Lack of legal safeguards for women
(d) Influence of patriarchal mindset

Answer. d


Passage – 3

The ultimate aim of government is not to rule or control by fear, nor to demand obedience, but conversely, to free every man from fear, that. he may live in all possible security. In other words, to strengthen his natural right to exist  and work without injury to himself or others. The object of government is not to change men from rational beings into beasts or puppets. It should enable them to develop their minds and bodies in security, and to employ their reason unshackled.

3. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a)  The true aim of government is to secure  the citizens their social and political freedom.
(b) The primary concern of government is to provide absolute social security to all its citizens.
(c) The best government IS the one that allows the citizens to enjoy absolute liberty in all matters of life.
(d) The best government is the one that  provides absolute physical security to the people of the country
Answer. a

Passage – 4

Our municipal corporation are understaffed. The issue of skills and competencies of the staff poses an even greater challenge. Urban service delivery and infrastructure are complex to plan and execute.
They require a high degree of specialization and professionalism. The current framework within which municipal employees, including senior management, are recruited does not adequately factor In the technical and managerial competencies required. Cadre and recruitment rules only specify the bare minimum in academic qualifications. There is no mention of managerial or technical competencies, or of relevant work experience. This is the case with most municipal corporations. They also suffer from weak organisation design and structure.

4.  Which among the following in the most logical and rational assumption that can be made from the above passage?

(a) The task of providing urban servicing is a complex issue which requires the organizational expansion of municipal bodies all over the country,
(b) Our cities can provide better quality of life if our local government bodies have adequate staff with required skills and competencies.
(c) Lack of skilled staff is due to the absence of institutions which offer the requisite skills in city management.
(d) Our country is not taking advantage of the demographic dividend to manage the problems associated with rapid urbanization

Answer. b


Flamingos in large flock in the wild are social extremely loyal. They perform group mating dances. Parents are very fond of their chicks, gathering them into crèches for protection while both males and females fly off to search for food.

5. Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?

(a) Mass nesting in all  species of bird is essential to ensure complete survival of their offspring.
(b) Only birds have the capacity to develop social behaviour and thus can do mass nesting to raise their chicks in safety.
(c) Social behaviour in some species of birds increases the odds of’ survival in an unsafe world.
(d) All species of birds set up creches for their chicks to teach thorn social behaviour and loyalty
Answer. c

Passage – 6

Vast numbers of Indian citizens without bank accounts live in rural areas, are financially and functionally illiterate, and have little experience with technology. A research study was conducted in a particular area in which electronic wage payments in Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) are meant to go directly to the poor. It was observed that recipients often assume that the village leader needs to mediate the process, as was the case under the previous paper-based system. Among households under this research study area who claimed to have at least one bank account, over a third reported still receiving MGNREGS wages in cash directly from a village leader.

6. What is the most logical, rational and crucial message that is implied in the above passage?

(a) MGNREGS should be extended only to those who have a bank account.
(b) The paper-based system of payments is more efficient than electronic payment in the present scenario.
(c) The goal of electronic wage payments was not to eliminate mediation by village leaders.
(d) It is essential to provide financial literacy to the rural poor. .
Answer. d
Passage -7

Individuals, groups and leaders who promote human development operate under strong institutional, structural and political constraints that affect policy options. But experience suggests broad principles for shaping an appropriate agenda for human development. One important finding from several decades of human development experience is that focusing exclusively on economic growth is problematic. While we have good knowledge about how to advance health and education, the causes of growth are much less certain and growth is often elusive. Further, an unbalanced emphasis on growth is often associated with negative environmental consequences and adverse distributional effects. The experience of China, with its impressive growth record, reflects these broader concerns and underlines the importance of balanced approaches that emphasize investments in the non-income aspects of human development.

7. With reference to till’ above passage, consider the following statements:

1. In developing countries, a strong institutional framework is the only requirement for human development and policy options
2. Human development and economic growth are not always positively inter-related.
3. Focusing only on human development should be the goal of economic growth
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only -,
(d) 1,2 and 3
Answer. c

8. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1.Higher economic growth is essential to ensure reduction in economic disparity.
2.Environmental degradation is sometimes a consequence of economic growth

Which of the above assumption/assumptions?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer. b
9. If A runs less fast than B, and B runs as fast but not faster than C; then, as compared to A, C runs

(a) slower than A
(b) faster than A
(c) with same speed as A
(d) Given data isnot sufficient to determine
Answer. b
10. Each of A., B, C and D has Rs 100. A pays Rs 20 to B, who pays Rs 10 to C, who gets Rs 30 from D. In this context, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) C is the richest
(b) D is the poorest.
(c) C has more than what A and D have together.
(d) B is richer than D
Answer. c
11. In a town, 45% population read magazine A, 55% read magazine B, 40% read magazine C, 30% read magazines A and B, 15% read magazines Band C, 25% read magazines A and C; and 10% read all the three magazines. What percentage do not read any magazine?

(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%

Answer. c

12. Examine the following statements:

1.Lady’s finger is tastier than cabbage.
2.Cauliflower is tastier than lady’s finger.
3.Cabbage is not tastier than peas.
The conclusion that can be drawn from these statements is that

(a) peas are as tasty as lady’s finger.
(b)peas are as tasty as cauliflower and lady’s finger.
(c) cabbage is the least tasty of the four vegetables.
(d) cauliflower is tastier than cabbage.

Answer. d
13.Shahid and Rohit start from the same point in opposite directions. After each 1 km, Shahid always turns left and Rohit always turns right. Which of the following statements is correct ?

(a) After both have travelled 2 km, the distance between them is 4 km.
(b) They meet after each has travelled 3km.
(c) They meet for the first time after each has travelled 4 km.
(d)They go on without ever meeting again.

Answer. b

14. In a 500 metres race, B starts 45 metres ahead of A, but A wins the race while B is still 35 metres behind. What is the ratio of the speeds of A to B assuming that both start at the same time?

(a) 25: 21
(b) 25: 20
(c) 5:3
(d) 5:7

Answer. a

15. Two equal glasses of same type are respectively 1/3 and 1/4 full of milk. They are then filled up with water and the contents are mixed in a pot. What is the ratio of milk and water in the pot?
(a) 7 : 17
(b) 1 : 3
(c) 9 : 21
(d) 11 : 23

Answer. a

16. Out of 130 students appearing in an examination, 62 failed in English, 52 failed in Mathematics, whereas 24 failed in both English and Mathematics. The number of students who passed finally is

(a) 40
(b) 50
(c) 55
(d) 60

Answer. a

17. In a group of persons travelling in a bus, 6 persons can speak Tamil, 15 can speak Hindi and 6 can speak Gujarati. In that group none can speak any other language. If 2 persons in the group can speak two languages only and one person can speak all the three languages, then how many persons are there in the group?

(a) 21
(b) 22
(c) 23
(d) 24

Answer. c

18. In a parking area, the total number of wheels of all the cars (four-wheelers) and scooters/motorbikes (two-wheelers) is 100 more than twice the number of parked vehicles. The number of cars parked is

(a) 35
(b) 45
(c) 50
(d) 55

Answer. c

19. The mangroves can shed tons of leaves per acre every year; fungi and bacteria break down this leaf litter and consume it, they then are consumed by tiny worms and crustaceans, which in turn feed small fish, which feed larger fish and birds and crocodiles.

Which among the following is the most logical inference of the above statement?

(a) Coastal areas cannot have food chains without mangroves.
(b) Mangroves are an essential component of all marine ecosystems.
(c) Mangroves have a crucial role in some of the coastal food chains.
(d) The composition of marine flora and fauna is largely determined by mangroves.

Answer. c

20. “By liberty I mean the eager maintenance of that atmosphere in which men have the opportunity to be their best selves.”

Which one of the following expresses the view implied in the above statement?

(a) Liberty is the absence of restraint on human action.
(b) Liberty is what law permits people to perform.
(c) Liberty is the ability to do what one desires.
(d) Liberty is the maintenance of conditions for the growth of human personality.

Answer. d

Directions for the following 8 (eight) items:

Read the following six passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage -1

Human history abounds m claims and theories confining the right of governing to a few select citizens. Exclusion of the many is justified on the ground that human beings may be rightfully segregated for the good of society and viability of the political process.

21. Which one of the following statements is least essential as a part of the argument in the above passage?

(a) Man seeks control over external things affecting him.
(b) In society, there are ‘super’ and ‘sub’ human beings.
(c) Exceptions to universal citizen participation are conducive to systemic efficacy.
(d) Governing implies recognition of disparities in individual capacities.

Answer. a

Passage – 2

By 2050, the Earth’s population will likely have swelled from seven to nine billion people. To fill all those stomachs – while accounting for shifting consumption patterns, climate change, and a finite amount of arable land and potable water – some experts say food production will have to double. How can we make the numbers add up? Experts say higher yielding crop varieties and more efficient farming methods will be crucial. So will waste reduction. Experts urge cities to reclaim nutrients and water from waste streams and preserve farmland. Poor countries, they say, can improve crop storage and packaging and rich nations could cut back on resource-intensive foods like meat.

22. Which one of the following statements best sums up the above passage?

(a) The population of the world is growing very fast.
(b) Food security is a perennial problem only in developing countries.
(c) The world does not have enough resources to meet the impending food scarcity.
(d) Food security is increasingly a collective challenge.

Answer. d

Passage – 3

Many people in India feel that if we cut our defence expenditure on weapon-building, we can create a climate of peace with our neighbours, subsequently reducing the conflict or creating a no-war situation. People who proclaim such ideas are either the victims of war or the propagators of false argument.

23. With reference to the above passage, which of the following is the most valid assumption?

(a) Building of weapons systems by us has instigated our neighbours to wage wars against us.
(b) The greater spending on weapon-building by us would lessen the possibility of armed conflict with our neighbours.
(c) It is necessary to have state of the art weapons systems for national security.
(d) Many people in India believe that we are wasting our resources on weapon-building.

Answer. b

Passage – 4

India accounts for nearly a fifth of the world’s child deaths. In terms of numbers, it is the highest in the world – nearly 16 lakhs every year. Of these, more than half die in the first month of life. Officials believe that the reason for this is the absence of steps to propagate basic health practices relating to breast feeding and immunisation. Also the large reproductive population of 2.6 crore remains bereft of care during the critical phases of pregnancy and post-delivery. Added to this is the prevalence of child marriages, anaemia among young women and lack of focus on adolescent sanitation, all of which impact child death rates.

24. Which is the critical inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) A lot of Indians are illiterate and hence do not recognize the value of basic health practices.
(b) India has a very huge population and the government alone cannot manage public health services.
(c) Universalization and integration of maternal health and child health services can effectively address the problem.
(d) The nutrition of women in child bearing age does not affect child mortality rate.

Answer. c

Passage – 5

Foods travel more than the people who eat them. Grocery stores and supermarkets are loaded with preserved and processed foods. This, however, often leads to environmental threats, such as pollution generated by long distance food transportation and wastage of food during processing and transportation, destruction of rain forests, reduced nutritional content, increased demand for preservation and packaging. Food insecurity also increases as the produce comes from regions that are not feeding their own population properly.

25. With reference to the above passage, which of the following statements is/are true?

1. Consuming regionally grown food and not depending on long travelled food is a part of eco-friendly behaviour.
2. Food processing industry puts a burden on our natural resources.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer. c

Passage – 6

I must say that, beyond occasionally exposing me to laughter, my constitutional shyness has been of no disadvantage whatever. In fact I can see that, on the contrary, it has been all to my advantage. My hesitancy in speech, which was once an annoyance, is now a pleasure. Its greatest benefit has been that it has taught me the economy of words. I have naturally formed the habit of restraining my thoughts. And I can now give myself the certificate that a thoughtless word hardly ever escapes my tongue or pen. I do not recollect ever having had to regret anything in my speech or writing. I have thus been spared many a mishap and waste of time. Experience has taught me that silence is part of the spiritual discipline of a votary of truth. Proneness to exaggerate, to suppress or modify the truth, wittingly or unwittingly, is a natural weakness of man, and silence is necessary in order to surmount it. A man of few words will rarely be thoughtless in his speech; he will measure every word. We find so many people impatient to talk. There is no chairman of a meeting who is not pestered with notes for permission to speak. And whenever the permission is given the speaker generally exceeds the time-limit, asks for more time, and keeps on talking without permission. All this talking can hardly be said to be of any benefit to the world. It is so much waste of time. My shyness has been in reality my shield and buckler. It has allowed me to grow. It has helped me in my discernment of truth.

26. The author says that a thoughtless word hardly ever escapes his tongue or pen. Which one of the following is not a valid reason for this?

(a) He has no intention to waste his time.
(b) He believes in the economy of words.
(c) He believes in restraining his thoughts.
(d) He has hesitancy in his speech.

Answer. a

27. The most appropriate reason for the author to be spared many a mishap is that

(a) he hardly utters or writes a thoughtless word.
(b) he is a man of immense patience.
(c) he believes that he is a spiritual person.
(d) he is a votary of truth.

Answer. a

28. For the author, silence is necessary in order to surmount

(a) constitutional shyness.
(b) hesitancy in speech.
(c) suppression of thoughts.
(d) tendency to overstate.

Answer. d

29. Twelve people form a club. By picking lots, one of them will host a dinner for all once in a month. The number of dinners a particular member has to host in one year is

(a) One
(b) Zero
(c) Three
(d) Cannot be predicted

Answer. d

30. An automobiles owner reduced his monthly petrol consumption when the prices went up. The price-consumption relationship is as follows:
Price (in Rs. Per litre)                   40    50    60    75
Monthly consumption (in litres)     60    48    40    30
If the price goes up to Rs. 80 per litre, his expected consumption (in litres) will be

(a) 30
(b) 28
(c) 26
(d) 24

Answer. a

31. Consider the figures given below:


To fit the question mark, the correct answer is

Image 2

Answer. a

32. Consider the following matrix:
3    8    10    2    ?    1
6    56    90    2    20    0
What is the missing number at ‘?’ in the matrix?
(a) 5
(b) 0
(c) 7
(d) 3

Answer. a

33. What is the missing number ‘X’ of the series 7, X, 21, 31, 43?
(a) 11
(b) 12
(c) 13
(d) 14

Answer. c

34. Four cardboard pieces of specific shapes are shown in the following figure:

Image 3

Which one of the following figures given can be formed by joining these pieces together?

Image 3

Answer. d

35. In a test, a candidate attempted only 8 questions and secured 50% marks in each of the questions. If he obtained a total of 40% in the test and all questions in the test carried equal marks, how many questions were there in the test?


(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 16

Answer. b

36. A father is nine times as old as his son and the mother is eight times as old as the son. The sum of the father’s and the mother’s age is 51 years. What is the age of the son ?

(a) 7 year
(b) 5year
(d) 4 year
(d) 3 year

Answer. d

37. Four persons A, B, C and D consisting of two married couples are in a group. Both the women are shorter than their respective husbands. A is the tallest among the four. C  is taller than B. D is B’s brother. In this context, which one of the following statements is not correct ?

(a) All four have family ties.
(b) B is the shortest among the four .
(c) C is taller than D..
(d) A is B’s husband

Answer. c

38. Consider the following statements :

1. A man had a wife, two sons and daughters in his family
2. The daughters were invited to a feast and the male members of the family went out to take part in a pienic
3.The man’s father did not return from his work.

Which of the following statement is true?

(a) Only the man’s wife was left at home.
(b) It is likely that the man’s wife was left at home.
(c) None was left at home
(d) More than one person was left at home.

Answer. b

39. Geeta: Naresh has become a better boxer since he started meditation.

Radha: Impossible, A boxer’s most important asset is his aggressiveness.

Radha’s statement reflect her belief that

(a) meditation tends to make a person less aggressive.
(b) meditation has little or no effect on the person who prnctises it.
(c). Naresh was a poor boxer earlier because he was not aggressive enough.
(d) Naresh would not have taken to meditation as he was a boxer.

Answer. a

40. All good athletes want to win and all athletes who want to win eat a well-balanced diet;  therefore all athletes who do not cat a well-balanced diet are bad athletes.
The best conclusion from this statement is that

(a) no bad athlete wants to win.
(b) no athlete who does not eat a well-balanced diet is a good athlete.
(c) every athlete who eats a well-balanced diet is a good athlete.
(d) all athletes who want to win an’ good athletes.
Answer. d
Directions for the following 7 (seven) items:

Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage -1

India has suffered from persistent high inflation. Increase III administered prices, demand and supply imbalances, imported inflation aggravated by rupee depreciation, and speculation – have combined to keep high inflation going. If there is an element common to all of them, it is that many of them are the outcomes of economic reforms. India’s vulnerability to the effects of changes in international prices has increased with trade liberalisation. The effort to reduce subsidies has resulted in a continuous increase in the prices of commodities that are administered.

41. What is the most logical, rational and crucial message that is implied in the above passage?

(a) Under the present circumstances, India should completely avoid all trade liberalisation policies and all subsidies.
(b) Due to its peculiar socio-economic situation, India is not yet ready for trade liberalisation process.
(c) There is no solution in sight for the problems of continuing poverty and inflation in India in the near future.
(d) Economic reforms can often high inflation economy.

Answer. d

Passage – 2

No Right is absolute, exclusive or inviolable. The Right of personal property, similarly, has to be perceived in the larger context of its assumed legitimacy. The Right of personal property should unite the principle of liberty with that of equality, and both with the principle of cooperation.

42. In the light of the argument in the above passage, which one of the following statements IS the most convincing explanation?

(a) The Right of personal property is a Natural Right duly supported by statutes and scriptures.
(b) Personal property is a theft and an instrument of exploitation. The Right of personal property is therefore violative of economic justice.
(c) The Right of personal property is violative of distributive justice and negates the principle of cooperation.
(d) The comprehensive idea of economic justice demands that the Right of each person to acquisition of property has to be reconciled with that of others.

Answer. d

Passage – 3

The conflict between man and State is as old as State history. Although attempts have been made for centuries to bring about a proper adjustment between the competing claims of State and the individual, the solution seems to be’ still far off. This is primarily because of the dynamic nature of human society where old values and ideas constantly yield place to new ones. It is obvious that if individuals are allowed to have absolute freedom of speech and action, the result would be chaos, ruin and anarchy.

43. The author’s viewpoint can be best summed up in which of the following statements?

(a) The conflict between the claims of State and individual remains unresolved.
(b) Anarchy and chaos are the obvious results of democratic traditions.
(c) Old values, ideas and traditions persist despite the dynamic nature of human society.
(d) Constitutional guarantee of freedom of speech is not in the interest of society.

Answer. a

Passage – 4

Climate change is a complex policy issue with major implications in terms of finance. All actions to address climate change ultimately involve costs. Funding is vital for countries like India to design and implement adaptation and mitigation plans and projects. Lack of funding is a large impediment to implementing adaptation plans. The scale and magnitude of the financial support required by developing countries to enhance their domestic mitigation and adaptation actions are a matter of intense debate in the multilateral negotiations under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)’ The Convention squarely puts the responsibility for provision of financial support on the developed countries, taking into account their contribution to the stock of greenhouse gases (GHGs) in the atmosphere. Given the magnitude of the task and the funds required, domestic finances are likely to fall short of the current and projected needs of the developing countries. Global funding through the multilateral mechanism of the Convention will enhance their domestic capacity to finance the mitigation efforts.

44. According to the passage, which of the following is/are a matter of intense debate in the multilateral negotiations under UNFCCC regarding the role of developing countries in climate change?
1. The scale and size of required financial support.
2. The crop loss due to climate change in the developing countries.
3. To enhance the mitigation and adaptation actions in the developing countries.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer. c

45. In this passage, the Convention puts the responsibility for the provision of financial support on the developed countries because of

1. their higher level of per capita incomes.
2. their large quantum of GDP.
3. their large contribution to the stock of GRGs in the atmosphere.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer. c

46. With regards to developing countries, it can be inferred from the passage that climate change is likely to have implications on their

1. domestic finances.
2. capacity for multilateral trade.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer. a

47. Which one of the following is essentially discussed in the passage?

(a) Conflict between developed and developing countries regarding support for mitigation
(b) Occurrence of climate change due to excessive exploitation of natural resources by the developed countries
(c) Lack of political will on the part of all the countries to implement adaptation plans.
(d) Governance problems of developing countries as a result of climate change

Answer. a

48. Between 6 PM and 7 PM the minute hand of a clock will be ahead of the hour hand by 3 minutes at

(a) 6: 15 PM
(b) 6: 18 PM
(c) 6: 36 PM
(d) 6: 48 PM

Answer. c

49. There are 5 tasks and 5 persons. Task-l cannot be assigned to either person-l or person-2. Task-2 must be assigned to either person-3 or person-4. Every person is to be assigned one task. In how many ways can the assignment be done?

(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 24
(d) 144

Answer. c

50. The monthly incomes of Peter and Paul are in the ratio of 4 : 3. Their expenses are in the ratio of 3 : 2. If each saves Rs. 6,000 at the end of the month, their monthly incomes respectively are (in Rs.)

(a) 24,000 and 18,000
(b) 28,000 and 21,000
(c) 32,000 and 24,000
(d) 34,000 and 26,000

Answer. a

51. Two cities A and B are 360 km apart. A car goes from A to B with a speed of 40 km/hr and returns to A with a speed of 60 km/hr. What is the average speed of the car?

(a) 45 km/hr
(b) 48 km/hr
(c) 50 km/hr
(d) 55 km/hr

Answer. b

Directions for the following 2 (two) items:

Read the following passage and answer the 2 (two) items that follow:
A, B, C, D, E and F are cousins. No two cousins are of the same age, but all have birthdays on the same day of the same month. The youngest is 17 years old and the oldest E is 22 years old. F is somewhere between B and D in age. A is older than B. C is older than D. A is one year older than C.

52. Which one of the following is possible?

(a) D is 20 years old
(b) F is 18 years old
(c) F is 19 years old
(d) F is 20 years old

Answer. b

53. What is the number of logically possible orders of all six cousins in terms of increasing age?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer. b

54. In a society it is customary for friends of the same sex to hug and for friends of opposite sex to shake hands when they meet. A group of friends met in a party and there were 24 handshakes.
Which one among the following numbers indicates the possible number of hugs?

(a) 39
(b) 30
(c) 21
(d) 20

Answer. c

55. Two men, Anil and David, and two women, Shabnam and Rekha are in a sales group. Only two speak Tamil. The other two speak Marathi. Only one man and one woman can drive a car. Shabnam speaks Marathi. Anil speaks Tamil. Both Rekha and David can drive.
Which of the following statements is true?

(a) Both the Tamil speakers can drive a car.
(b) Both the Marathi speakers can drive a car.
(c) Both of those who can drive a car speak Marathi.
(d) One of those who can drive a car speaks Tamil.

Answer. d

56. In a plane, line X is perpendicular to line Y and parallel to line Z; line U is perpendicular to both lines V and W; line X is perpendicular to line V.
Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Z, U and W are parallel.
(b) X, V and Y are parallel.
(c) Z, V and U are all perpendicular to W.
(d) Y, V and W are parallel.

Answer. d

57. A cow costs more than 4 goats but less than 5 goats. If a goat costs between Rs. 600 and Rs. 800, which of the following is a most valid conclusion?

(a) A cow costs more than Rs. 2,500.
(b) A cow costs less than Rs. 3,600.
(c) A cow costs between Rs. 2,600 and Rs. 3,800.
(d) A cow costs between Rs. 2,400 and Rs. 4,000.

Answer. d

58. A society consists of only two types of people fighters and cowards. Two cowards are always friends. A fighter and a coward are always enemies. Fighters are indifferent to one another. If A and B are enemies, C and D are friends, E and F are indifferent to each other, A and E are not enemies, while Band F are enemies.

Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) B, C and F are cowards.
(b) A, E and F are fighters.
(c) B and E are in the same category.
(d) A and F are in different categories.

Answer. b

59. In a box of marbles, there are three less white marbles than the red ones and five more white marbles than the green ones. If there are a total of 10 white marbles, how many marbles are there in the box?

(a) 26
(b) 28
(c) 32
(d) 36

Answer. b

60. Candidates in a competitive examination consisted of 60% men and 40% women. 70% men and 75% women cleared the qualifying test and entered the final test where 80% men and 70% women were successful.

Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Success rate is higher for women.
(b) Overall success rate is below 50%.
(c) More men cleared the examination than women.
(d) Both (a) and (b) above are correct.

Answer. c

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items:

Read the following six passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage -1

Climate change is already making many people hungry all over the world, by disrupting crop yields and pushing up prices. And it is not just food but nutrients that are becoming scarcer as the climate changes. It is the poorest communities that will suffer the worst effects of climate change, including increased hunger and malnutrition as crop production and livelihoods are threatened. On the other hand, poverty is a driver of climate change, as desperate communities resort to unsustainable use of resources to meet current needs.

61. Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?

(a) Government should allocate more funds to poverty alleviation programmes and increase food subsidies to the poor communities.
(b) Poverty and climate impacts reinforce each other and therefore we have to re-imagine our food systems.
(c) All the countries of the world unite in fighting poverty malnutrition and treat poverty global problem.
(d) We must stop unsustainable agricultural practices control food prices.

Answer. a

Passage – 2

The Global Financial Stability Report finds that the share of portfolio investments from advanced economies in the total debt and equity investments in emerging economies has doubled in the past decade to 12 percent. The phenomenon has implications for Indian policy makers as foreign portfolio investments in the debt and equity markets have been on the rise. The phenomenon is also flagged as a threat that could compromise global financial stability in a chain reaction, in the event of United States Federal Reserve’s imminent reversal of its “Quantitative Easing” policy.

62. Which among the following is the most rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) Foregin portfolio investments are not good for emerging economies.
(b) Advanced economies undermine the global financial stability.
(c) India should desist from accepting foreign portfolio investments in the future.
(d) Emerging economies are at a risk of shock from advanced economies.

Answer. d

Passage – 3

Open defecation IS disastrous when practised in very densely populated areas, where it is impossible to keep away human faeces from crops, wells, food and children’s hands. Groundwater is also contaminated by open defecation. Many ingested germs and worms spread diseases. They prevent the body from absorbing calories and nutrients. Nearly one-half of India’s children remain malnourished. Lakhs of them die from preventable conditions. Diarrhoea leaves Indians’ bodies smaller on average than those of people in some poorer countries where people eat fewer calories. Underweight mothers produce stunted babies prone to sickness who may fail to develop their full cognitive potential. The germs released into environment harm rich and poor alike, even those who use latrines.

63. Which among the following is the most critical inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) The Central and State governments in India do not have enough resources to afford a latrine for each household.
(b) Open defecation is the most important public health problem of India.
(c) Open defecation reduces the human capital of India’s workforce.
(d) Open defecation is a public health problem in all developing countries.

Answer. c

Passage – 4

We generally talk about democracy but when it comes to any particular thing, we prefer a belonging to our caste or community or religion. So long as we have this kind of temptation, our democracy will remain a phoney kind of democracy. We must be in a position to respect a man as a man and to extend opportunities for development to those who deserve them and not to those who happen to belong to our community or race. This fact of favouritism has been responsible for much discontent and ill-will in our country.

64. Which one of the following statements best sums up the above passage?

(a) Our country has a lot of diversity with its many castes, communities and religions.
(b) True democracy could be established by providing equal opportunities to all.
(c) So far none of us have actually understood the meaning of democracy.
(d) It will never be possible for us to establish truly democratic governance in our country.

Answer. b

Passage – 5

The existence/establishment of formal financial institutions that offer safe, reliable and alternative financial instruments is fundamental in mobilising savings. To save, individuals need access to safe and reliable financial institutions, such as banks, and to appropriate financial instruments and reasonable financial incentives. Such access is not always available to all people in developing countries like India and more so, in rural areas. Savings help poor households manage volatility in cash flow, smoothen consumption, and build working capital. Poor households without access to a formal savings mechanism encourage immediate spending temptations.

65. With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements:

1. Indian financial institutions do not offer any financial instruments to rural households to mobilise their savings.
2. Poor households tend to spend their earnings/savings due to lack of access to appropriate financial instruments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer. b

66. What is the crucial message conveyed in the passage?

(a) Establish more banks.
(b) Increase the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth rate
(c) Increase the interest rate of bank deposits
(d) Promote financial inclusion

Answer. d

Passage – 6

Governments may have to take steps which would otherwise be an infringement on the Fundamental Rights of individuals, such as acquiring a person’s land against his will, or refusing permission for putting up a building, but the larger public interest for which these are done must be authorized by the people (Parliament). Discretionary powers to the administration can be done away with. It is becoming more and more difficult to keep this power within limits as the government has many number of tasks to perform. Where discretion has to be used, there must be rules and safeguards to prevent misuse of that power. Systems have to be devised which minimise, if not prevent, the abuse of discretionary power. Government work must be conducted within a framework of recognised rules and principles, and decisions should be similar and predictable.

67. Which among the following is the most logical assumption that can be made from the above passage?

(a) Government should always be given wide discretionary power in all matters of administration.
(b) The supremacy of rules and safeguards should prevail as opposed to the influence of exclusive discretion of authority.
(c) Parliamentary democracy is possible only if the Government has wider discretionary power.
(d) None of the above statements is a logical assumption that can be made from this passage.

Answer. b

68. A selection is to be made for one post of Principal and two posts of Vice-Principal. Amongst the six candidates called for the interview, only two are eligible for the post of Principal while they all are eligible for the post of Vice-Principal. The number of possible combinations of selectees is

(a) 4

(b) 12
(c) 18
(d) None of the above

Answer. d

69. A student has to opt for 2 subjects out of 5 subjects for a course, namely, Commerce, Economics, Statistics, Mathematics I and Mathematics II. Mathematics II can be offered only if Mathematics I is also opted. The number of different combinations of two subjects which can be opted is

(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8

Answer. c

70. A person ordered 5 pairs of black socks and some pairs of brown socks. The price of a black pair was thrice that of a brown pair. While preparing the bill, the bill clerk interchanged the number of black and brown pairs by mistake which increased the bill by 100%. What was the number of pairs of brown socks in the original order?

(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 25

Answer. d

71. The number of persons who read magazine X only is thrice the number of persons who read magazine Y. The number of persons who read magazine Y only is thrice the number of persons who read magazine X. Then, which of the following conclusions can be drawn?
1. The number of persons who read both the magazines is twice the number of persons who read only magazine X.
2. The total number of persons who read either one magazine or both the magazines is twice the number of persons who read both the magazines.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer. The question has been dropped by UPSC

72. The graph below depicts the earnings of A and B over the period 2000 to 2010:

Image 6

From the graph, which one of the following can be concluded?


(a) On the average A earned more than B during this period.
(b) On the average B earned more than A during this period.
(c) The earnings of A and B were equal during this period.
(d) The earnings of A were less as compared to B during this period.

Answer. a

73. Two pipes A and B can independently fill a tank completely in 20 and 30 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are opened simultaneously, how much time will they take to fill the tank completely?

(a) 10 minutes
(b) 12 minutes
(c) 15 minutes
(d) 25 minutes

Answer. b

74. Each of the six different faces of a cube has been coated with a different colour i.e., V, I, B, G, Y and O. Following information is given:

1. Colours Y, O and B are on adjacent faces.
2. Colours I, G and Y are on adjacent faces.
3. Colours B, G and Y are on adjacent faces.
4. Colours O, V and B are on adjacent faces.

Which is the colour of the face opposite to the face coloured with O?

(a) B
(b) V
(c) G
(d) I

Answer. c

75. Consider the following statements followed by two conclusions:
Statements: Some men are great.
Some men are wise.
Conclusion I:  Men are either great or wise.
Conclusion II: Some men are neither great nor wise
Which one of the following is correct?

(a) Only conclusion I is valid
(b) Only conclusion II is valid
(c) Both the conclusions are valid
(d) Neither of the conclusions is valid

Answer. d

76. Consider the following statements:

1. Some claim to have seen UFOs (Unidentified Flying Objects).
2. Life on other heavenly bodies is considered to be a possibility.
3. Voyage to space is now an established fact.

From the above statements, it may be concluded that

(a) UFOs are heavenly bodies
(b) UFOs are sent from other heavenly bodies
(c) Some living species in other heavenly bodies are more intelligent than man
(d) Nothing definite can be said about the UFOs

Answer. d

77. If ABC x DEED = ABCABC; where A, B, C, D and E are different digits, what are the values of D and E?

(a) D = 2, E = 0
(b) D = 0, E = 1
(c) D = 1, E = 0
(d) D = 1, E = 2

Answer. c

78. Year-wise variation of the price of a certain commodity is shown in the following graph:

Image 5

The price of the commodity in the year 1990

(a) must have been Rs. 10/-
(b) must have been Rs. 12/-
(c) must have been anywhere between Rs. 10/- and Rs. 20/-
(d) is higher than that in the year 1991

Answer. c

79. The proportion of expenditure on various items by two families A and B are represented in the following Bar Charts:

Image 6

From these charts, we can conclude that


(a) Family A spent more money on food than Family B.
(b) Family B spent more money on food than Family A.
(c) Family A and Family B spent the same amount on food.
(d) The expenditure on food by Family A and Family B cannot be compared.

Answer. c

80. Usha runs faster than Kamala, Priti runs slower than Swati, Swati runs slower than Kamala. Who is the slowest runner?

(a) Kamala
(b) Priti
(c) Swati
(d) Usha

Answer. b

UPPCS Main (Written) Exam 2014: General Studies Paper II: Question Paper

The Main Examination of Uttar Pradesh Combined State/Upper Subordinate Exam 2014 popularly called as UPPCS Main Exam 2014 commenced from 5 November 2014. The Preliminary of UPPCS 2014 was conducted on 3 August and the result declared on 7 October. The General Studies Paper II contains 150 Questions and the Time limit is 2 Hours.

The UPPCS Main 2014 General Studies Question Paper II is given below.

                                            GENERAL STUDIES Paper –II

Max Time : 2 Hours                                                                         Max Marks: 200

1. A father tells his son “I was your present age when you were born”. If the father is 64 years old now, the age of son after 10 years will be

(a) 42 years

(b) 44 years

(c) 38 years

(d) 50 years

2. A sum of Rs. 6,240 is paid off in 30 installments in such a way that each installment is Rs. 10 more than the previous installment. The first installment would be of

(a) Rs. 36

(b) Rs.63

(c) Rs. 37

(d) Rs.73

3. A and B are poets and students, B and C are athletes and students, D and C are students and businessmen, A and E are social workers, B, C and E are athletes, A, B and D are poets. Who is poet, athlete and student?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

4. Krishna walks 1 km East of his house, then 1 km North, again 2 km East, 3 km South and 3 km West. To reach his house he must walk

(a) 1 km North

(b) 1 km South

(c) 2 km South

(d) 2 km North

5. The value of Coefficient of co-relation lies between

(a) -1 to +1

(b) -1 to 0

(c) 0 to +1

(d) -∞ to +∞

6. One train starts from place’ A ‘at 5:00 pm and reaches the place ‘B’ at 6:00 pm. Another train starts from place ‘B’ at 5:00 pm and reaches place ‘A’ at 6:30 pm. The two trains will cross each other at

(a) 5:56 pm

(b) 5:48 Pm

(c) 5:42 pm

(b) 5:36 pm

7. Histogram is drawn with

(a) Equal class-intervals only

(b) Unequal class-intervals only

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

8. Percentiles are the value of the variate which divides the total frequency into “K” equal parts. K is equal to

(a) 99

(b) 100

(c) 101

(d) None of the above

9. Quartiles and deciles divide the total frequency in (K1, K2) equal parts. (K1, K2) are

(a) (4, 10)

(b) (3, 9)

(c) (3, 11)

(d) (4, 9)

10. Mode of the following observations 0, 1,6,7,2,3,7,6,6,2,6,0,5,6,0 is:

(a) 3.8

(b) 5

(c) 6

(d) None of the above

11. When the variable is height in centimetres, the unit of the standard deviation is

(a) centimetre

(b) (centimetre)2

(c) (centimetre)-1

(d) None of the above

12. If the standard deviation of a variable X is , then the standard deviation of 4X + 5 is

(a) 4+ 5

(b) +4

(c) -4

(d) +5

13. A fair coin is tossed thrice. The probability of getting atleast two heads is




(d) None of the above

14. The table below gives size of memberships in an organisation:









No. of members








The percentage increase in Y7 compared to Y6 is

(a) 5.01

(b) 4.97

(c) 4.95

(d) 5.32

15. Graphical representation of data can be done by

(a) Histogram only

(b) Ogive only

(c) Frequency polygon only

(d) All of the above

16. In a Tehsil the numbers of people are as follows:

Children          Adults              Old

250                 450                200

The angle substituted at the centre in a pie-diagram, corresponding to children is

(a) 100°

(b) 105°

(c) 97°

(d) 114°

17. If M1 and M2 are the A.M. of two sets of data with N1 and N2 observations respectively and the two sets of data are combined together, then the A.M. of the combined data is

(a) N1 M1 + N2 M2

(b)( N1 M1 + N2 M2 )/(N1 +N2)

(c) M1 + M2

(d) None of the above

18. The median of the following set: 2000, 1180, 1785, 1500, 560, 782, 1200, 385, 1123, 222

(a) 1151.5

(b) 1171.7

(c) 1177.3

(d) 1180.5

19. Consider the series X1, X2, ……..Xn with G.M. G1  and Y1, Y2 ,……. Yn with G.M. G2 and define Zi=Xi/Yi, i=1,2,……….. n, then the G.M. of Z’s is

(a) G1,G2

(b) G1/G2

(c) √(G1/G2)

(d) None of the above

20. The two comulative frequency distribution cut each other at the point corresponding to the

(a) Mean

(b) Median

(c) Mode

(d) None of the above

21.If the mean of A, B, C, D and E is 50 and mean of B, C, D and E is 60, then the value of A is

(a) 10

(b) 15

(c) 20

(d) 25

22. The question paper has 10 questions and each question could be answered as True or False. The number of different possible sequences of answers is

(a) 10

(b) 45

(c) 100

(d) 1024

23. The following table gives the import and export (in million dollars) of a country :

Year:                2010    2011    2012    2013

Import:             150      175      170      200

Export:              140      183      170      210

The average trade balance (trade balance = export – import) is

(a) 8/3

(b) 2

(c) -1

(d) 3/2

24. The following table gives the area (in thousand square km) and population (in million) of four cities:

City:                 A          B          C          D

Area:               125      140      180      200

Population:        25        40        60        50

The most densely populated city is

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

25. The following table gives the annual profit of a company (in lakh rupees)

2008-09           2009-10           2010-11           2011-12           2012-13

590                   620                 656                 690                  726

The period which has maximum percent increase in profit over previous period

(a) 2009-10

(b) 2010-11

(c) 2011-12

(d) 2012-13

26. The following table gives the number of science, arts and commerce students in a group of boys and girls:

Science            Arts      Commerce      Total

Boys        20               _              15            80

Girls         6                40              _             _

Total         _                 _             20             _

The total number of students in the group is

(a) 127

(b) 131

(c) 138

(d) 144

27. The median of

1, 5, 2, 8, 9, 7, 16 is

(a) 5

(b) 7

(c) 6.5

(d) 8.5

28. The harmonic mean of
0, 2, 4, 6, 8 is

(a) 0

(b) 4


(d) 4.8

29. The geometric mean of the numbers

1, 2, 4, 8, 16 is

(a) 0

(b) 4

(c) 6

(d) 8

30. The following graph shows number of engineers by 2, number of labourers by 7 and number of administrators by 5 in a company. If total number of administrators is 50, then number of labourers is

(a) 150

(b) 100

(c) 175

(d) 200

31. 10% of students taking admission in a course drop out before completing their course and among those drop outs 30% are girls. If total number of students taking admission in the college is 200 and among them 50 are girls, then number of girls who completed the course is

(a) 44

(b) 42

(c) 40

(d) 36

32. In a sample of 5000 customers collected in a marketing survey, 40% use only Brand A of a product, 25% use both Brands A and B of the product and remaining customers use only Brand B of the product. The number of people who do not use Brand B of the product is

(a) 1250

(b) 1500

(c) 1600

(d) 2000

33. A pie-chart represents profit of the companies A, B and C. If total profit of three companies is 720 lakh and angle of pie-chart corresponding to company A is 120°, then profit of A (in lakh) is

(a) 120

(b) 240

(c) 320

(d) 360

34.The average weight of a group of two males A, B and two females C and D is 65 kg. If average weight of two males is 70 kg and weight of D is 58 kg, then weight of C is

(a) 58 kg

(b) 60 kg

(c) 62 kg

(d) 65 kg

35. The marks obtained by six students in a test are 12, 25, 18, 18, 20, 22. The number of students whose marks are more than the average marks is

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

36. The monthly incomes of six employees of a company in rupees are 15,000, 17,500, 17,500, 18,000, 28,000, and 30,000. The number of employees having income more than the mode and less than the mean incomes is

(a) 0

(b) 1

(c) 2

(d) 3

37. Rastrapati Bhavan was designed by

(a) Edward Stone

(b) Le Corbusier

(c) Edwin Lutyens

(d) Tarun Dutt

38. The concept of Concurrent List in Indian Constitution was borrowed from

(a) Canada

(b) Australia

(c) U.S.A

(d) Great Britain

39. Who among the following is the legal advisor of a State Government?

(a) Attorney General

(b) Advocate General

(c) Solicitor General

(d) Comptroller and Auditor General

40. How many types of emergencies have been invisaged under the Indian Constitution?

(a) Two

(b) Four

(c) Three

(d) One

41. To whom does the Speaker of the Lok Sabha address to resign from the office?

(a) The President

(b) The Prime Minister

(c) The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(d) The Chief Justice of India

42. Which one of the following Amendments of the Constitution is related to the Lowering of the age of voters ?

(a) 61st Amendment

(b) 44th Amendment

(c) 42nd Amendment

(d) 24th Amendment

43. Curative Petition in India can be filed in Supreme Court under Article

(a) 138

(b) 140

(c) 142

(d) 146

44. Among the following schedules of the Indian Constitution, which schedule gives the name and the area of the state?

(a) First Schedule

(b) Second Schedule

(c) Third Schedule

(d) Fourth Schedule

45. In which Article of Indian Constitution Doctrine of Due Process of Law is included?

(a) 11

(b) 16

(c) 21

(d) 26

46. How many constitutional Amendments in India have been implemented up to 2013 ?

(a) 68

(b) 78

(c) 88

(d) 98

47. If in India the office of President and Vice-President fall vacant at one point of time the’ office of President will temporarily be held by

(a) The Prime Minister

(b) The Chief Justice of Supreme Court

( c) The Chief of Armed Forces

(d) None of the above

48. Indian Model of Ombudesman is

(a) Lekhpal

(b) Tehsildar

(c) Governor

(d) Lokpal

49. Who renders oath of secrecy of power to the Governor?

(a) The President

(b) The Vice-President

(c) Chief Justice of High Court of State

(d) The Speaker of Legislative Assembly

50. The word ‘Hindu’ in Article 25 of the Constitution of India does not include

(a) Buddhist

(b) Jains

(c) Sikhs

(d) Parsees

51. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?

(a) Right against Exploitation

(b) Equal pay for equal work

(c) Equality before law

(d) Right to freedom of Religion

52. What is the maximum no. of members in State’s Legislative Assembly of India?

(a) 400

(b) 450

(c) 500

(d) 550

53. The 44th Amendment In the Constitution of India removed the following right from the category of Fundamental Rights:

(a) Freedom of Speech

(b) Constitutional Remedies

(c) Property

(d) Freedom of Religion

54. How many Fundamental Duties are in the Indian Constitution?

(a) Nine

(b) Eleven

(c) Twelve

(d) Twenty

55. Which of the following options is not correct? Public Finance Studies financial activities of the Government. Its activities include

(a) Analysis of Public Expenditure

(b) Public Revenue

(c) Financial Administration

(d) Functioning of Commercial Bank

56. Which one of the following is NOT provided in part IV A (Fundamental Duties) of the Indian Constitution?

(a) To respect the National Flag.

(b) To promote the spirit of brotherhood amongst all people of India.

( c) To respect our parents and teachers.

(d) To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

57. Uttarakhand State was created in

(a) the year 1999

(b) the year 2000

(c) the year 2001

(d) the year 2002

58. Which one of the following is correct? Union Public Service Commission is

(a) A Regulatory organization.

(b) A Legal organization.

(c) Established by Parliamentary ordinance.

(d) a Constitutional organization.

59. There is one and the same Constitution for all the Indian states and the centre. However there is exception in the case of one state. That state is

(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Jammu-Kashmir

(c) Tamil Nadu

(d) Kerala

60. Which of the following is correct? The main feature of a Presidential form of Government is/are

(a) The Head of the Executive is the President.

(b) The President appoints his council of Ministers.

(c) The President cannot dissolve the Legislature.

(d) All of the above.

61. The concept of Human Rights primarily emphasises on

(a) Right to property

(b) Right to equality

(c) Right to religion

(d) Dignity of man as a human being

62. Which bill was withdrawn from the Parliament (Indian) at the eleventh hour in 2013-14?

(a) Bill related to Right to Information.

(b) Bill relatedto tainted Legislators.

(c) Food Security Bill.

(d) None of the above.

63. Who among the following was the first Governor-General of free India?

(a) Lord Mountbatten

(b) Sir Stafford Cripps

(c) C. Rajgopalachari

(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

64. In 2003 OBC status for Gurkhas was given in

(a) Uttar Pradesh

(b) Andhra Pradesh

(c) Maharashtra

(d) Uttarakhand

65. The Indian Foreign Policy of Non- Alignment was initiated by

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Mrs. Indira Gandhi

(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri

(d) Morarji Desai

66. Among the following Presidents of India, who is known as the Philosopher King or the Philosopher Ruler?

(a) Dr. Radha Krishnan

(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(c) Dr. Zakir Hussain

(d) Dr. Abdul Kalam

67. As on March 2014, no. of companies BSE Greenex Index includes was

(a) 100

(b) 75

(c) 50

(d) 25

68. According to Freedom of States of India Report 2013, the State which tops the rank is

(a) Maharashtra

(b) Andhra Pradesh

(c) Gujarat

(d) Haryana

69. In India the State which produces the largest amount of Rubber (2013) was

(a) Uttrakhand

(b) Tamil Nadu

(c) Karnataka

(d) Kerala

70. The economic growth of India in financial year 2013-14 was approximately

(a) 8%

(b) 7%

(c) 6%

(d) 5%

71. The document of Twelfth Five Year Plan suggests that the largest expenditure in this plan would be on

(a) Financial Services

(b) Social Services

(c) Agriculture

(d) Fisheries and Forestry

72. PURA (Providing Urban Amenities in Rural Areas) an ambitious programme on Rural Development was introduced by

(a) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

(b) Manmohan Singh

(c) M.S. Swaminathan

(d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

73. Which of the following Private Bank for the first time did set up its branch in China?

(a) IClCI Bank

(b) HDFC Bank

(c) AXIS Bank

(d) Samadhan Bank

74. The Oil and Natural Gas Commission (ONGC) was set up in

(a) 1956

(b) 1957

(c) 1959

(d) 1961

75. Excise Duty on liquor is imposed by

(a) Central Government

(b) State Governments

(c) Nagar Nigams

(d) District Boards

76. The Railway Budget 2013-14 has approved to introduce a new hyper luxury class. It is to be called

(a) Udaan

(b) Anand

(c) Apoorva

(d) Anubhuti

77. Which of the following programme is not an Employment Generation and Poverty Alleviation of Government of India?


(b) NRLM (National Rural Livelihoods Mission)

(c) SJSRY (Swarn Jayanti Shaheri Rozgar Yojna)

(d) NSSF (National Social Security Fund)

78. The first 3D theatre of India has been set up at which of the following international airport?

(a) Raja Bhoj Airport, Bhopal.

(b) Rajeev Gandhi Airport, Hyderabad.

(c) Indira Gandhi Airport, New Delhi.

(d) Chhatrapati Shivaji Airport, Mumbai.

79. Indira Gandhi National University for women is going to be set up as a Central University at

(a) Jaipur

(b) Bhopal

(c) Kolkata

(d) Raebareli

80. Where are diamond mines in India?

(a) Karnataka

(b) Uttar Pradesh

(c) Madhya Pradesh

(d) Tamil Nadu

81. RBI has cleared the resolution to start Payment Banks in India for improving Financial inclusion. Following committee had recommended the creation of Payment Banks.

(a) Arvind Mayaram

(b) Y.V. Reddy

(c) Bimal Jalan

(d) Nachiket More

82. The share of Road Transport in total transport of India is

(a) 100%

(b) 80%

(c) 60%

(d) 40%

83. Which one of the following is not responsible for unemployment?

(a) Rapid growth of population.

(b) Lack of skill.

(c) Growth of per capital income.

(d) Lack of manpower planning.

84. Which of the following groups is not co-partner of Industrial Relation?

(a) Consumer and their organisations,

(b) Workers and their organisations.

(c) Managers and their organisations.

(d) State Govemments and Central Govemment.

85. In relation to Agricultural Finance and Refinance which institution is the biggest?

(a) Regional Rural Banks


(c) Central Cooperative Bank

(d) Land Development Bank

86. Which plan among the following declared its objective of self-reliance and zero net foreign aid?

(a) Second Five Year Plan

(b) Third Five Year Plan

(c) Fourth Five Year Plan

(d) Fifth Five Year Plan

87. Who decides whether a bill is Money Bill or not?

(a) President

(b) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs

(c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

88. Which one of the following is not a Pre Paid Payment instrument?

(a) Delhi Metro Rail Card

(b) Electronic Wallet

(c) Credit Card of a Nationalised Bank

(d) Airtel Money

89. Planning Commission of India is a

(a) Political body

(b) Non-Political body

(c) Quasi-Political body

(d) Statutory body

90. The share of services in Indias G.D.P and total unemployment in 2012-13 respectively are approximately

(a) 50% and 20%

(b) 57% and 28%

(c) 64% and 34%

(d) 55% and 45%

91. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:


A.First Five Year Plan

B.Third Five Year Plan

C.Fourth Five Year Plan

D.Sixth Five Year plan

List -II

1. 1980-85

2. 1951-56

3. 1961-66

4. 1969-74


A       B          C          D

(a) 1        2          3           4

(b) 2        3          4           1

(c) 2        3          1           4

(d) 1        4          2           3

92. According to Census 2011 in which of the following districts of U.P. the no. of people living in Rural Areas are maximum?

(a) Allahabad

(c) Hamirpur

(b) Varanasi

(d) Unnao

93. Which among the following states became the first state to observe Child Protection Day on March 3, 2014 ‘?

(a) Assam

(b) Sikkirn

(c) Bihar

(d) Gujarat

94. Which one of the following countries is the most restructure country according to FDI Restructureness Index (FRI) in 2012?

(a) China

(b) India

(c) Pakistan

(d) Iran

95. Recently Govemment of India has approved the proposal of providing loans to Women Self Health Groups (SHG) at a lower interest rate to eradicate poverty through women empowerment. The interest rate is

(a) 7.00%

(b) 7.50%

(c) 8.00%

(d) 8.50%

96. In India which one of the following collects and publishes the unemployment Index?

(a) Planning Commission

(b) Finance Commission

(c) N.S.S.O.

(d) U.N.O.

97. In medical terminology ‘Golden Hour’ is related with

(a) Terminal stage of cancer

(b) Pregnancy is detected

(c) Heart Attack

(d) Actual Child Birth

98. E.E.G. is done to record the working of

(a) Heart

(b) Lungs

(c) Brain

(d) Kidney

99. Beta-blocker IS a medicine to save from

(a) Heart attack

(b) Enlargment of Prostate gland

(c) Chronic diabetes

(d) None of the above

100. Oral submucos fibrosis is a disease caused by

(a) Drinking Liquor

(b) Smoking Tobbacco

(c) Consuming Gutka of Tobbacco

(d) Consuming Red Meat

101. ‘SANRAKSHA’ is

(a) Maleria Research and Control Project (Bengaluru)

(b) AIDS Research and Control Project (Bengaluru)

(c) T.B. Research and Control Project (New Delhi)

(d) None of these

102. BMD Test is performed for

(a) Arthritis

(b) Osteoporosis

(c) Osteomalacia

(d) None of these

103. Apples have special value for heart-patients, because they are rich source of

(a) Sodium and Potassium

(b) Phosphorus and Magnesium

(c) Potassium and Phosphorus

(d) Potassium only

104. EBOLA is a

(a) Terrorist Organization

(b) Deadly virus

(c) AIDS Test

(d) None of these

105. Diseases of inner parts of the human body are diagnosed through

(a) Cardiograph

(b) Endoscope

(c) Gyroscope

(d) Crestograph

106. Phonometer is used to measure which one of the following?

(a) The power of brightness oflight

(b) Extremely high temperature

(c) Frequency of electromagnetic wave

(d) Atmospheric humidity

107. Which one of the following devices is used to cool the engine of the vehicles?

(a) Polygraph

(b) Turbine

(c) Radiator

(d) Quadrant

108. Machine Gun was invented by

(a) Beared

(b) G. Brousa

(c) Karl Benz

(d) James Pakal

109. The principle of thermal ionisation is an outstanding contribution of

(a) H.J. Bhabha

(b) M.N. Saha

(c) C.V. Raman

(d) J.C. Bose

110. Rocket works on the principle of the following:

(a) Avogadro’s concept

(b) Energy conservation

(c) Momentum conservation

(d) Bernoulli’s theorem

111. The inside pressure of the soap bubble is

(a) Equal to the atmospheric pressure.

(b) More than the atmospheric pressure

(c) Less than the atmospheric pressure

(d) None of the above.

112. The most abundantly found organic compound in the nature is

(a) Glucose

(b) Fructose

(c) Sucrose

(d) Cellulose

113. Which one of the following is the best conductor of heat?

(a) Water

(b) Mercury

(c) Benzene

(d) Leather

114. Mirage formation is an example of

(a) Refraction

(b) Dispersion

(c) Total internal reflection

(d) Diffraction

115. Which one of the following devices is used to measure the intensity of earthquake?

(a) Seismograph

(b) Stethoscope

(c) Comograph

(d) Periscope

116. The colour of the light is fixed by its

(a) Velocity

(b) Amplitude

(c) Frequency

(d) Wavelength

117. Which one of the following can not be used as a nuclear fuel?

(a) Uranium

(b) Thorium

(c) Calcium

(d) Plutonium

118. Goldsmiths use aquaregia which is prepared by mixing

(a) Nitric acid and sulphuric acid

(b) Nitric acid and hydrochloric acid

(c) Sulphuric acid and hydrochloric acid

(d) Citric acid and benzoic acid

119. Commonest side effect of Cu-T:

(a) Bleeding

(b) Pain

(c) Perforation

(d) Pelvic intlammatory disease

120. The most abundant element found in the human body is

(a) Iron

(b) Sodium

(c) Oxygen

(d) Iodine

121. The amount of carbon is highest in

(a) Pig iron

(b) Wrought iron

(c) Steel

(d) Alloy steel

122. Which one of the following metals is liquid at ordinary temperature?

(a) Lead

(b) Nickel

(c) Mercury

(d) Tin

123. Which one of the following is called ‘dry ice’?

(a) Dehydrated ice

(b) Solid hydrogen peroxide

(c) Solid water

(d) Solid carbon dioxide

124. The gases employed for respiratory activities of divers are

(a) oxygen and nitrogen

(b) oxygen and helium

(c) oxygen and argon

(d) oxygen and neon

125. The study of ageing is known as

(a) Gerontology

(b) Ethnology

(c) Anthropology

(d) Thanatology

126. Which one of the following polymers is used in making bullet-proof vests?

(a) Bakelite

(b) Polyamides

(c) Teflon

(d) Polyurethanes


128. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 20% and its width is decreased by 20%, the area will be

(a) Increased by 4%

(b) Decreased by 4%

(c) Increased by 20%

(d) None of the above

129. If A:B = 5:7 and B:C = 9:11, then A:C is

(a) 45 : 77

(b) 49 : 99

(c) 63 : 55

(d) None of the above

130. Let 54 is to be divided into two parts, so that 10 times the first and 22 times the second together are equal to 780. Then the first part is

(a) 30

(b) 32

(c) 34

(d) 39

131. If P is the principal amount, r is the rate of interest per annum and n is the
number of years, then the compound interest is P(X-1), where X is



132. Which of the following numbers would fit in the series given below?

3, 14, 25, 36, 47, ……..

(a) 1111

(b) 1112

(c) 1113

(d) 1114

133. The average of 7 numbers is 25. The average of first three of them is 20, while the average of last three is 28. The remaining number is

(a) 21

(b) 35

(c) 31

(d) 39

134. Which of the following represents the average of five consecutive even numbers a, b, c, d and e?



135. A square is converted into a rectangle by increasing its length by 20% and decreasing its breadth by 20%, which of the following statement is true?

(a) Area of rectangle = 96% area of square

(b) Area of rectangle = Area of square

(c) Area of square = 96% of area of rectangle

(d) Area of rectangle = 80% area of square

136. 15 persons can fill 35 boxes in 7 days. How many persons are required to fill 65 boxes in 5 days?

(a) 39

(b) 49

(c) 33

(d) 36

137. A two digit no. is such that the product of its digits is 12. When 36 is added to this no. the digits interchange their place. The unit (first) digit would be

(a) 2

(b) 6

(c) 4

(d) 3

138. If PERFECT is coded as RGUIHFW, then BROWN in that code is written as





139. Which should come in place of the question mark in the following series?
B2E, D5H, F12K, H27N,?

(a) I58Q

(b) I57Q

(c) J58Q

(d) J58P

140. If P denotes ‘+’, R denotes ‘x’, S denotes ‘-‘ and T denotes ‘÷’, then the value of

5 R 9 P 7 S 9 T 3 P 6 is

(a) 54

(b) 55

(c) 60

(d) 59

141. In the following number series, a wrong number is given:
3, 5, 13, 49, 241, 1445, 10081

The number is

(a) 1445

(b) 241

(c) 49

(d) 13

142. AZB: CXD:: EVF:?

(a) HSR

(b) GTH

(c) GHT

(d) RIS

143. Mr. A meets Mrs. B. B is the mother of a son C and a daughter D. E is mother
of A. C is married and has one son, E is the daughter-in-law of B. How is A related to B?

(a) Uncle

(b) Grandson

(c) Son

(d) Nephew

144. Choose odd one from the following:

(a) ADBC

(b) DGEF

(c) GJHI

(d) KMLN

145. If I walk at 3 Km/h, I miss the train by 2 minutes. However, if I walk at 4 km/h I reach the station 2 minutes before the departure of train. The distance of station from my house is



146. A dealer sold two radio sets for Rs. 396 each, gaining 10% on one and losing 10% on the other. Which of the following statement is true?

(a) He loses 1%

(b) He neither gains nor loses

(c) He gains 1%

(d) He loses 8%



(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)

(b) (ii), (iii), (v), (iv), (i)

(c) (iii), (ii), (i), (v), (iv)

(d) (iv), (v), (iii), (ii), (i)

(a) x + y + Z = 1800

(b) y = x + Z

(c) x = y + z

(d) z = x + y

149. If a triangle of base 7 cm is equal in area to a circle of radius 7 cm, the altitude of the triangle in cm is


(b) 7


(d) 14

150. The missing number in the following table:











(a) 30

(b) 25

(c) 27

(d) 32

UPPCS Main (Written) Exam 2014: General Studies Paper I: Question Paper

                         General Studies Paper I

Max Time : 2 Hours                      Max Marks: 200

1. Match List-I with the List-Il and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                         

A. Fatehpur Sikri

B. Jaunpur City

C. Agra City

D. Jama Masjid, Badaun

List – II

1. Iltutmish

2. Sikandar Lodi

3. Akbar

4. Feroz Shah Tughlaq


A       B         C       D

(a)  3       4        2        1

(b) 1      2        4        3

(c) 2       4        1        3

(d) 4      3        2        1

2. The Scheduled Tribe of U.P. having maximum population is

(a) Tharu

(b) Gond

(c) Khairwar

(d) Chero

3. GIDA is

(a) Ghaziabad Industrial Development Authority

(b) Gorakhpur Industrial Development Authority

(c) Gomti Industrial Development Authority

(d) Ganga Industrial Development Authority

4. In which of the following districts of U.P. is Aryabhatta Planetarium situated?

(a) Allahabad

(b) Lucknow

(c) Gorakhpur

(d) Rampur

5. Malaviya Chamatkar is a variety of

(a) Pea

(b) Pigeon-Pea (Arhar)

(c) Moong

(d) Wheat

6. Central Glass and Ceramic Research Institute is located at

(a) Agra

(b) Kanpur

(c) Ferozabad

(d) Khurja

7. Which one of the following is a State University?

(a) Banaras Hindu University (BHU), Varanasi

(b) Allahabad University, Allahabad

(c) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar University, Lucknow

(d) Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia National Law University, Lucknow

8. Match List-I with the List-Il and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                                                


A. Kailash Mela

B. Navachandi Mela

C. Kalinger Mela

D. Soron Mela

 List – II


1. Agra

2. Meerut

3. Banda

4. Etah


A    B          C          D

(a) 1     2          3          4

(b) 4     2          3          1

(c) 2     3          4          1

(d) 3    1          2          4

9. Match List-I with the List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                                             List – II

Persons)                                        (Awards)

A. Pt. Ravi Shankar             1. Bharat Ratna

B. Veer Abdul Hameed        2. Param Veer Chakra

C. Dr. Hazari Prasad Dwivedi 3. Padma Vibhushan

D. Pt. Kishan Maharaj         4. Padma Bhushan


A     B          C           D

(a) 1     2          3          4

(b) 1    2          4          3

(c) 3     2          4          1

(d) 4    3          2          1

10. Mirzapur is famous for

(a) Kajari

(b) Charkula dance

(c) Panwara

(d) Nakta

11. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Oil Refinery       – Mathura

(b) Fertilizer Plant   – Lucknow

(c) Carpet Industry  – Bhadohi

(d) Aluminium Production – Sonabhadra

12. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Birju Maharaj – Kathak

(b) Alha  – Mahoba

(c) Amzad Ali Khan – Sarod

(d) Birha – Kannauj

13. India’s total merchandise trade as a percentage of G.D.P. has increased from 29.5% in 2004-05 to what percentage in 2012-13?

(a) 30.5 %

(b) 40.6 %

(c) 45.6 %

(d) 50.6 %

14. The long term vision of the Department of Commerce is to make India a major player in the world trade by the year

(a) 2018

(b) 2019

(c) 2020

(d) 2021

15. ‘Small Farmer’s Development Programme’ was started in the year

(a) 1947

(b) 1967

(c) 1980

(d) 1961

16. ‘Triticale’ is a cross between which of the following?

(a) Barley and Rye

(b) Wheat and Oat

(c) Wheat and Barley

(d) Wheat and Rye

17. Kisan Credit Card (KCC) Scheme for farmers was introduced in

(a) 1998-1999

(b) 1999-2000

(c) 2000-2001

(d) 2001-2002

18. Which of the following is C4 plant?

(a) Paddy

(b) Soya bean

(c) Maize

(d) Wheat

19. The first Agricultural University of the country is

(a) J.N.K.V., Jabalpur

(b) G.B.P.A.U., Pant Nagar

(c) P.A.U., Ludhiana

(d) R.A.U., Bikaner

20. Which one of the following countries is the major producer and consumer of pulses?

(a) U.S.A.

(b) China

(c) England

(d) India

21. National Horticulture Board was established in the year

(a) 1976

(b) 1987

(c) 1984

(d) 2002

22. Which State of India occupies largest area under Soya bean cultivation?

(a) Madhya Pradesh

(b) Rajasthan

(c) Uttar Pradesh

(d) Punjab

23. Which one of the following States is having largest area under hybrid rice cultivation?

(a) Bihar

(b) Karnataka

(c) Punjab

(d) Uttar Pradesh

24. ‘Farmers’ Day’ is celebrated on

(a) August, 23

(b) October, 23

(c) December,23

(d) February, 23

25. NABARD came into existence in the year

(a) 1979

(b) 1980

(c) 1981

(d) 1982

26. Which one of the following varieties of Mango is a regular bearing variety?

(a) Chausa

(b) Langra

(c) Dashari-1

(d) None of the above

27. Major Banks (14) were nationalized in the year

(a) 1968

(b) 1969

(c) 1970

(d) 1971

28. Match List-I with the List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                            List- II

(Name of the Crop)    (Name of Disease)

A.Sugarcane                  1. Late Blight

B.Paddy                   2. Red Rot

C.Arhar                           3. Khaira

D.Potato                        4. Wilt


A     B           C        D

(a) 1     2          3          4

(b) 2     3          4          1

(c) 3     2          1          4

(d) 4     3          2          1

29. Match List-I with the List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

 List – I

A. Indian Institute of Sugarcane Research

B. National Bureau of Plant Genetics Research

C. National Plant Protection Training Institute

D. Directorate of Wheat Research

List – II

1. New Delhi

2. Hyderabad

3. Lucknow

4. Kanpur


A      B       C        D

(a)  1      2        3        4

(b)  3      1        2        4

(c)  4      3        2        1

(d) 2     3        4         1

30. Consider the following pairs:

(Name of the banks)                                    (Locations of head office)

1. Allahabad Bank                                           – Kolkata

2. Small Industrial Development Bank of India   – Mumbai

3. The Overseas Bank                                     – Chennai

Which one of the above pair is not correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

31. Dadheri is a late Harappan site of

(a) Jammu

(b) Punjab

(c) Haryana

(d) Uttar Pradesh

32. Rig-vedic religion was

(a) Polytheistic

(b) Monotheistic

(c) Monistic

(d) Liberaterian

33. Which of the following is the correct order of the Vedic literature?

(a) Vedic Samhitas, Brahmanas, Aranyakas, Upnishadas

(b) Vedic Samhitas, Upnishadas, Aranyakas, Brahmanas

(c) Vedic Samhitas, Aranyakas, Brahmanas, Upnishadas

(d) Vedic Samhitas, Vedangas, Aranyakas, Smritis

34. Which of the events of Buddha’s life is known as ‘mahabhinishkramana’?

(a) His death

(b) His birth

(c) His departure from home

(d) His attainment of enlightenment

35. Which is the Correct chronological order of the following stupas?

(a) Bharhut, Sanchi, Amarawati, Dhamekh

(b) Amarawati, Sanchi, Bharhut, Dhamekh

(c) Sanchi, Amarawati, Bharhut, Dhamekh

(d) Dhamekh, Bharhut, Amarawati, Sanchi

36. In Indian architecture, ‘Surkhi’ was introduced by

(a) Kushans

(b) Guptas

(c) Sultanate Sultans

(d) Mughals

37. The Rath temples at Mahaballipuram were built by

(a) Cholas

(b) Pallavas

(c) Chedis

(d) Chalukyas

38. Who of the following Chinese travellers has given an account of relationship of China with India during the reign of Chalukyas?

(a) Fa-Hien

(b) Hieun-Tsang

(c) It-Sing

(d) Matwalin

39. Name the Chola King who conquered the northern part of Sri Lanka?

(a) Rajaraja-I

(b) Rajendra-I

(c) Parantaka-I

(d) Aditya-I

40. In Sangam Literature ‘Tolkappiyam’ is a text of

(a) Tamil poetry

(b) Tamil grammar

(c) Tamil architecture

(d) Tamil polity

41. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I

A. Hampi

B. Nagarjunikonda

C. Shishupalgarh

D. Arikamedu

List – II

1. Puducherry

2. Karnataka

3. Andhra Pradesh

4. Odisha


A      B          C        D

(a) 2       3        4          1

(b) 3       2        4          1

(c) 1       3        2          4

(d) 4       2        3          1

42. Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh of Jaipur had not built the observatory at

(a) Ujjain

(b) Varanasi

(c) Mathura

(d) Allahabad

43. The Battle of Talikota was fought between

(a) Akbar and Sultan of Malwa

(b) Vijaynagar and Bahmani Kingdom

(c) Vijaynagar and combined forces of Bijapur, Ahmadnagar and Golkunda

(d) Sher Shah and Humayun

44. Who was the first Sultan of Delhi to Issue regular currency and declared Delhi as the capital of his empire?

(a) Nasiruddin Mahmud

(b) Iltutmish

(c) AramShah

(d) Balban

45. The first Sufi Saint of Chistia order in India was

(a) Shaikh Muinuddin Chisti

(b) Hamiduddin Nagauri

(c) Kutubuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki

(d) Nizamuddin Aulia

46. The most reputed disciple of Shaikh Farid who had seen the reign of as many as seven sultans of Delhi was

(a) Nizamuddin Aulia

(b) Shaikh Nasiruddin Chirag

(c) Shaikh Salim Chisti

(d) None of the above

47. Who one of the following painters of Jahangir’s reign was conferred the title of ‘Nadir-ul-Asra’?

(a) Daulat

(b) Bishandas

(c) Manohar

(d) Mansur

48. Select the correct chronological order of the Bhakti Saints from the following:

(a) Kabir, Guru Nanak, Chaitanya, Mirabai

(b) Kabir, Chaitanya, Guru Nanak, Mirabai

(c) Kabir, Mirabai, Chaitanya, Guru Nanak

(d) Guru Nanak, Chaitanya, Mirabai, Kabir

49. During the Mughal period ‘Maullim ‘ was

(a) a tax

(b) an administrative unit

(c) a ruler

(d) a ship

50. Consider the following which concluded the subsidiary alliances with Lord Wellesley and find the correct chronological order of their treaties from the codes given below:

1. Hyderabad

2. Mysore

3. Avadh

4. Sindhia


(a) 1,2,3,4

(b) 1,3,4,2

(c) 4,3,2,1

(d) 3,2,1,4

51. In which of the following years British Government finally agreed to hold the Indian Civil Services (I.C.S.) examination simultaneously in India and England?

(a) 1922

(b) 1923

(c) 1924

(d) 1925

52. The original name of Banda Bahadur was

(a) Mahesh Das

(b) Lachhman Dev

(c) Dwarka Das

(d) Harnam Das

53. French East India Company was constituted during the reign of

(a) Louis XIV

(b) Louis XIII

(c) Louis XV

(d) Louis XVI

54. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Lord Cornwallis : Permanent Settlement

(b) Lord Wellesley  : Subsidiary Alliance System

(c) Sir John Shore   : Anglo-Nepal War

(d) Lord Hastings   : Third Anglo-Maratha War

55. Which of the following is correctly matched?

(a) First Anglo Mysore War  -: Hyder Ali was defeated

(b) Second Anglo Mysore War -: Hyder Ali defeated the British

(c) Third Anglo Mysore War -: Tipu Sultan won the battle and did not cede his territory to British.

(d) Fourth Anglo Mysore War – : Tipu was defeated and was killed in the thick of battle

56. Sir Adwin Ernald’s book ‘The Light of the Asia’ is based on

(a) Divavadana

(b) Lalitvistar

(c) Suttapitak

(d) Abhidhamrnapitak

57. Who one of the following had renounced the title of Haziq-ul-Mulk during Khilafat agitation?

(a) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

(b) Mohammad Ali

(c) Shaukat Ali

(d) Hakim Ajrnal Khan

58. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Prarthana Sarnaj – Dr. Atmaram Pandurang

(b) Atmiya Sabha – Debendra Nath Tagore

(c) Brahmo Samaj of India – Keshab Chandra Sen

(d) Radhaswami Satsang – Tulsi Ram

59. ‘Dar-ul-Ulum’ was established by

(a) Maulana Shibli Numani

(b) Maulana Hussain Ahmad

(c) Maulavi Abdullah Chakralavi

(d) Maulana Ahmad Riza Khan

60. India House in London was established by

(a) Shyamji Krishna Verma

(b) Bartullah

(c) Virendranath Chattopadhyay

(d) Lala Har Dayal

61. Who one of the following is the biographer of Jawahar Lal Nehru?

(a) Frank Moraes

(b) Dom Moraes

(c) Louis Fischer

(d) Webb Miller

62. Who one of the following was not associated with Swaraj Party?

(a) Motilal Nehru

(b) C.R. Das

(c) N.C. Kelkar

(d) Rajendra Prasad

63. The English edition of ‘Gitanjali’ was published in the year

(a) 1910

(b) 1911

(c) 1912

(d) 1913

64. Which of following religions does not trust In the concept of ‘final annihilation of the world’?

(a) Buddhism

(b) Jainism

(c) Hinduism

(d) Islam

65. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

 List –I


A. Land Holders’ Society

B. British India Society

C. Indian Society

D. Indian Association

List -II

1. S.N. Banerji

2. Anand Mohan Bose

3. William Adams

4. Dwarkanath Tagore


A       B         C           D

(a) 4       3        2          1

(b) 4       2        3          1

(c) 3       2        4          1

(d) 4       1        2          3

66. Who of the following were elected to collaborate with Mahatma Gandhi who was to author the new Constitution of the Congress as per resolution of Indian National Congress at Amritsar Session, 1919?    .

1. B.G. Tilak

2. N.C. Kelkar

3. C.R. Das

4. LB. Sen

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


(a) 2 and 4

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 3

67. Who of the following had written, “India’s salvation will not be achieved under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi”?

(a) M.A. Jinnah

(b) Clement Richard Attlee

(c) Winston Churchill

(d) Subhash Chandra Bose

68. Consider the following events and find the correct chronological order of the events from the codes given below:

1. Special Session of Indian National Congress, Calcutta.

2. Demise of B.G. Tilak

3. Announcement of Peace terms to Turkey

4. Submission of unanimous report on Jallianwalabagh Massacre by Congress Committee.


(a) 4,3,2,1

(b) 1,2,3,4

(c) 3,2,1,4

(d) 1,2,4,3

69. Who one of the following had commanded Mahatma Gandhi to spend first year in India ‘with his ears open but his mouth shut’?

(a) Dadabhai Naoroji

(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(c) Pherozeshah Mehta

(d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

70. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Avadh Kisan Sabha  – Jawahar Lal Nehru

(b) United Indian Patriotic Association – Sir Syed Ahmad Khan

(c) All India Kisan Sabha – Acharya Narendra Dev

(d) Radical Democratic Party – M.N. Roy

71. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List -I

A. Abhinava Bharat

B. Mitra Mela

C. Indian Republic Army

D. Hindustan Republic Association

List -II


1. V.D. Savarkar

2. G.D. Savarkar

3. S.N. Sanyal

4. S. Sen


A       B       C          D

(a) 1       2        3          4

(b) 2       3        1          4

(c) 4       2        3          1

(d) 2       1        4          3

72. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List -I

A. Leader

B. Bombay Chronicle

C. Independent

D. Justice

 List -II
(Launcher/ Publisher)

1. Madan Mohan Malviya

2. Pherozeshah Mehta

3. T.M. Nair

4. Motilal Nehru


A       B          C          D

(a) 1     2         4          3

(b) 4     3         2          1

(c) 3     2         1          4

(d) 4     1         2          3

73. Who said “criticism and independent thought are the two characteristics of a revolutionary”?

(a) Bhagat Singh

(b) Ram Prasad Bismil

(c) Sachindranath Sanyal

(d) Bhagawati Charan Vohra

74. The former name of Harijan Sevak Sangh was

(a) All India Anti-Untouchability League

(b) All India Depressed Classes Association

(c) Depressed Classes Association for Social Reforms

(d) Association of Untouchables

75. Who one of the following was associated with ‘Komagatamaru episode’?

(a) Sardar Ajit Singh

(b) Baba Gurdip Singh

(c) V.D. Savarkar

(d) Sardar Bhagat Singh

76. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Census-year                   Sex Ratio in India

(a) 1951              –           946

(b) 1991              –           938

(c) 2001              –            933

(d) 2011              –            940

77. The most densely populated country in East Asia is

(a) China

(b) Japan

(c) North Korea

(d) South Korea

78. Under the National Population Policy, 2000, the goal to attain population stagnation has been raised from 2045 to

(a) 2055

(b) 2060

(c) 2065

(d) 2070

79. Which one of the following is the most populous State in India as per Census of 2011?

(a) Madhya Pradesh

(b) Andhra Pradesh

(c) Odisha

(d) Uttar Pradesh

80. Population growth in India during the decade 2001-2011, was

(a) 17.6 %

(b) 19.5 %

(c) 21 %

(d) 22 %

81. In which of the following land locked States of India, the percentage of urban population is highest as per 2011 Census?

(a) Haryana

(b) Jammu and Kashmir

(c) Punjab

(d) Madhya Pradesh

82. Which one of the following States of India has sex -ratio (as per 2011 Census) above the national average?

(a) Jharkhand

(b) Gujarat

(c) Maharashtra

(d) Madhya Pradesh

83. Which of the following Union Territories has the lowest number of villages as per 2011 Census ‘?

(a) Dadra and Nagar Haveli

(b) Daman and Diu

(c) Lakshadweep

(d) Puducherry

84. In which of the following Census a year in India was recorded the highest percentage change in population?

(a) 1971

(b) 1981

(c) 1991

(d) 2001

85. In terms of population as per 2011 Census, the correct sequence of the following districts of U.P. in descending order is

(a) Moradabad, Allahabad, Ghaziabad, Lucknow

(b) Lucknow, Allahabad, Ghaziabad, Moradabad

(c) Allahabad, Moradabad, Ghaziabad, Lucknow

(d) Ghaziabad, Lucknow, Moradabad, Allahabad

86. Consider the following statements about urbanization:

1. Urbanization is a ratio concept.

2. It takes place on account of in- migration factors.

3. It is a result of out-migration factors.

4. Increase in urban population is urbanization.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) All the four

87. Which of the following has the largest biodiversity?

(a) Temperate deciduous forest biome

(b) Tropical rain forest biome

(c) Temperate grassland biome

(d) Savana biome

88. Assertion (A): Green Revolution Technology played a crucial role in gradually transforming
traditional agriculture into modern scientific one.

Reason (R): It did not involve much of social and environmental cost.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.

89. Who of the following used the term ‘deep ecology’ for the first time?

(a) E.P. Odum

(b) C. Raunkiaer

(c) F.E. Clements

(d) Arnies Naess

90. Which of the following statements about bio-fuel is not correct?

(a) Bio-fuel is eco-friendly.

(b) Bio-fuel is cost-effective.

(c) Bio-fuel can contribute to remedy energy crisis.

(d) Bio-fuel is also made from corn.

91. International ‘Tiger Day’ is observed on

(a) 24th July

(b) 29th July

(c) 20th July

(d) 25th July

92. Which of the following is not true about the eco-system?

(a) It represents all living organisms and physical environment in any given space-time unit.

(b) It is a functional unit.

(c) It has own productivity.

(d) It is a closed-system. .

93. National Biological Garden of India is situated in

(a) Mumbai

(b) Lucknow

(c) New Delhi

(d) Bengaluru

94. In which of the following years was constituted the ‘Central Ganga Authority’ by Government of India?

(a) 1975

(b) 1982

(c) 1985

(d) 1995

95. World Environment Day’ is observed on

(a) April, 5

(b) June, 5

(c) August, 5

(d) October, 5

96. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I


A. Davos

B. Barcelona

C. Auckland

D. Kandy

List – II


I. Spain

2. New Zealand

3. Sri Lanka

4. Switzerland


A      B        C          D

(a) 4      1         2          3

(b) 2      3         1          4

(c) 1      2         4          3

(d) 3      4         2          1

97. Which of the following ocean currents does not belong to Indian Ocean?

(a) Agluhas Current

(b) Mozambique Current

(c) South Indian Ocean Current

(d) Benguela Current

98. Which of the following cities is called ‘Manchester of East’?

(a) Nagoya

(b) Tokyo

(c) Sendai

(d) Osaka

99. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I

(World Islands)

A.Alutian Islands

B.Bear Islands


D.Franz Joseph

List – II

(Owner Country)

1. Russia

2. Denmark

3. Norway

4. U.S.A.


A        B         C           D

(a) 4       3        2          1

(b) 1       2        3          4

(c) 3       1        4          2

(d) 2       4        1          3

100. Mauna Loa is an active volcano of

(a) Hawaii Islands

(b) Alaska

(c) Italy

(d) Japan

101. Which of the following IS called ‘Garden of lakes’ ‘?

(a) Finland

(b) Sweden

(c) New Zealand

(d) Greenland

102. Which one of following is the correct sequence of the countries in descending order of their nuclear power capacity as per 2012?

(a) Russia, Japan, China, France

(b) France, Russia, Japan, China

(c) Japan, Russia, France, China

(d) France, Japan, Russia, China

103. The Death Valley known as ‘Devil’s Golf Course’ is located in

(a) U.S.A

(b) Chile

(c) Siberia

(d) Afghanistan

104. Match List -I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I

(Means in polar areas)

A. Kayak

B. Inuit

C. Uniak

D. Sledge

List – II


1. Boat for transport

2. Dog pulled vehicle

3. Narrow hunting Boat

4. Snow house


A      B          C        D

(a) 3     4          1          2

(b) 2      1         4          3

(c) 1     2          3          4

(d) 4     3          2          1

105. Which of the following mountains is not the result of Tertiary orogeny?

(a) Kunlun

(b) Applachians

(c) Alps

(d) Andes

106. Assertion (A): Bihar is a backward State of the country.

Reason (R): It is characterized by regional disparities in the level of development.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

107. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Shipki La    – Himachal Pradesh

(b) Lipu Lekh    – Arunachal Pradesh

(c) Nathu La    – Sikkim

(d) Joji La       – Jammu & Kashmir

108. Which of the following soils of India is most suitable for cotton cultivation?

(a) Regur soil

(b) Laterite soil

(c) Alluvial soil

(d) Red soil

109. Which of the following nuclear power plants has the highest total installed capacity?

(a) Kakarapar

(b) Kaiga

(c) Kudankulam

(d) Tarapur

110. The State of India with low acreage, but very high per hectare yield of groundnut is

(a) Uttar Pradesh

(b) West Bengal

(c) Punjab

(d) Chhattisgarh

111. Which of the following water-falls of India is located in Goa ?

(a) Dhunwadhar Falls

(b) Dudhsagar Falls

(c) Nokhalikai Falls

(d) Landshing Falls

112. Which of the following lakes of India is located in Assam?

(a) Hamirsar Lake

(b) Koleru Lake

(c) Sala Lake

(d) Chapanala Lake

113. Which of the following is the correct sequence of States of India in descending order in terms of reserves of coal?

(a) Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh

(b) Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand

(c) Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh

(d) Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha

114. Which one of following facts about Bombay High Oil Field is not correct?

(a) Bombay High Oil Field lies 60 km off Mumbai coast.

(b) It was discovered in 1965.

(c) The first oil well was Sunk in 1974.

(d) It was discovered jointly by Russian and Indian teams.

115. Match List-I with the List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I

(River Valley Project)

A. Tilaiya Dam

B. Panchet Hill Dam

C. Rana Pratap Sagar Dam

D. Matatila Dam

List – II


1. Damodar

2. Chambal

3. Barakar

4. Betwa


A      B           C           D

(a) 3     1          2          4

(b) 2     3          4          1

(c) 1     2          3          4

(d) 4     1          2          3

116. The 7th BRICS Summit of 2015 will be held in Russian city of

(a) Abaza

(b) Balakovo

(c) Kotovo

(d) Ufa

117. Prime Minister dedicated ‘Chutak Hydropower Station’ to the nation in August, 2014 in which of the following States, it is located?

(a) Gujarat

(b) Sikkim

(c) Himachal Pradesh

(d) Jammu and Kashmir

118. Which one of the following countries has become the largest oil producing nation as per latest data released in July, 2014?

(a) Iran

(b) Saudi Arabia

(c) Russia

(d) U.S.A.

119. According to U.N. Population Report released in July, 2014, which one of the following is the most populous city?

(a) Mexico City

(b) Mumbai

(c) Beijing

(d) Sau-Paulo

120. What is the rank of India in Human Development Index according to the Human development Report released by U.N.D.P. 10 July, 2014, which covers 187 countries?

(a) 140th

(b) 135th

(c) 130th

(d) 73rd  

121. Which of the following banks received ‘Core Banking System Initiative Award, 2014’?

(a) S.B.I.

(b) P.N.B.

(c) B.M.B.

(d) B.O.B.

122. For which one of the following reasons, Akhouri Sinha has been in news in second half of 2014?

(a) He was short listed for Booker’s Award, 2014.

(b) CBI Director, who at his residence allegedly met some persons who were being investigated.

(c) U.S. Geological Survey named a mountain in Antarctica after him.

(d) He was being considered for the post of next Chief Vigilance Commissioner.

123. Which one of the following is India’s most admired company as per the ‘Fortune Magazine’ list released in August, 2014?

(a) T.C.S.

(b) Wipro

(c) I.T.C.

(d) Idea Cellular

124. ISRO launched PSLV-23 on 30th  June, 2014 with satellites of other countries also. The satellite of which of the following countries was not included in this launch?

(a) Germany

(b) Austria

(c) Canada

(d) Singapore

125. In July, 2014, India and Russia jointly participated in ‘Indra-14’ exercise in the ‘Sea of Japan’. The Indian Navy was represented by its two warships. Which one of the following Indian warships participated in this exercise?

(a) I.N.S. Shakti

(b) I.N.S. Shivalik

(c) I.N.S. Kamorta

(d) I.N.S. Sahyadri

126. In September, 2014, the historic referendum for independence was conducted in

(a) Ireland

(b) Ukraine

(c) Hong Kong

(d) Scotland

127. One of the important points of recently concluded Indo-Chinese Pact in September, 2014 was regarding alternate route to Kailash-Mansarovar from India. The proposed new route would pass through

(a) Kora La Pass

(b) Nathu La Pass

(c) Zoji La Pass

(d) Jelepa La Pass

128. The UNESCO has approved in June, 2014 ‘Himalayan National Park’ for inclusion in the world’s heritage sites. It is situated in

(a) Jammu and Kashmir

(b) Sikkim

(c) Himachal Pradesh

(d) Uttarakhand

129. Who amongst the following joined as Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India in July, 2014?

(a) Kaptan Singh

(b) Dr. Amarjeet Singh

(c) Dr. C.A. Bandopadhyaya

(d) S.S. Mundra

130. The rank of India in medals tally in 17th Asian Games, 2014 held at Incheon is

(a) 7th

(b) 8th

(c) 9th

(d) 10th

131. Who amongst the following was declared ‘Player of the Match’ in the final of the 6th edition of Champions T-20 Cricket Tournament played in October, 2014 at Bengaluru?

(a) Suresh Raina

(b) M.S. Dhoni

(c) Gautam Gambhir

(d) Pawan Negi

132. Bimal Jalan will be first head of

(a) BRICS Development Bank

(b) Expenditure Management Commission

(c) Competition Commission of India

(d) None of the above

133. India has deployed the country’s first underwater multi-purpose observatory in the arctic region of North Pole in Sept., 2014. The name of this observatory is

(a) Gargi

(b) Kalpana

(c) Ind Arc

(d) Hind Arc

134. Which one of the following countries was visited by Chief Minister of U.P. in September, 2014 with an objective to attract overseas investment in the State?

(a) France

(b) Netherlands

(c) Denmark

(d) Australia

135. The construction work of all international cricket stadium in U.P. has been started recently in October, 2014 in

(a) Lucknow

(b) Varanasi

(c) Noida

(d) Agra

136. Director of ‘Gandhi’ film and Oscar Award winner who died recently in August, 2014 was

(a) Richard Attenborough

(b) Rob Skipper

(c) George Atten

(d) Robert Thompson

137. Consider the following statements about M.C. Mary Kom, the Indian woman boxer and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(i) She won a gold medal in 16th Asiad.

(ii) She is mother of three children.

(iii) She has written a biography entitled ‘The Unbreakable’.

(iv) She has been five times World’s boxing champion and is the only Indian woman boxer who has won a gold medal in Asian Games.


(a) All four statements are correct.

(b) (i) and (ii) are incorrect and rest (iii) and (iv) are correct.

(c) Only (i) is correct and rest (ii), (iii) and (iv) are incorrect.

(d) (i) is incorrect and rest (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.

138. Match List-I with the ‘list-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List -I
(Personalities passed away recently)

A. Bangaru Laxman

B. U.R. Ananth Murthy

C. B.K.S. Iyengar

D. Nanda

List -II

(Fields they belonged to)

1. Cinema

2. Yoga

3. Literature

4. Politics


A        B        C            D

(a) 1       2        3          4

(b) 4       3        2          1

(c) 3       2        1          4

(d) 2       3        4          1

139. Match List-I with the List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List -I

(Recently appointed Governors)

A. Balramji Das Tandon

B. Mridula Sinha

C. Om Prakash Kohli

D. Vajubhai Vala


A      B         C          D

(a) 1     2          3          4

(b) 3     2          1          4

(c) 4     3          2           1

(d) 2     3          4          1

140. The name of the Ebola Virus, which has recently been declared as epidemic by U.N., has been derived from the name of Ebola River. This river Ebola is located in

(a) Asia

(b) Africa

(c) South America

(d) North America

141. Who amongst the following will posthumously be honoured with Ashok Chakra, the Nation’s highest peace time gallantry award as announced in August, 2014 ?

(a) Wing Commander Havi Upadhyaya

(b) Major Mukund Varadrajan

(c) Lt. Colonel Manohar Kumar

(d) Lance Naik Bharat Kumar Kshetriya

142. Which of the following Scheduled Tribes of Andaman and Nicobar Islands took part in the last Parliament Election of 2014 for the first time?

(a) Jarawa

(b) Andamanese

(c) Shompen

(d) Aunge

143. The State Logo of Uttar Pradesh does not have

(a) Fishes

(b) Bow

(c) Arrow

(d) Peacock

144. Swachchha Bharat Abhiyan aims to achieve the target of ‘Clean India’ by the year

(a) 2024

(b) 2020

(c) 2019

(d) 2017

145. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Vindhyachal  – Mirzapur

(b) Devasharif   – Barabanki

( c) Hastinapur   – Meerut

(d) Shringverpur – Faizabad

146. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

(a) Kanpur       – Chakeri

(b) Varanasi    – Babatpur

( c) Lucknow    – Amausi

(d) Agra           – Fursatganj

147. U.P. Sanskrit Sansthan was established in the year

(a) 1950

(b) 1955

(c) 1965

(d) 1976

148. Long-term agricultural credit is provided by

(a) Primary Cooperative Society

(b) District Cooperative Bank

( c) Land Development Bank

(d) State Cooperative Bank

149. Which of the following pulse crops occupies largest area in U.P?

(a) Moong

(b) Pigeon-pea

(c) Pea

(d) Gram

150. Match List-I with the List-Il and select the correct answer from the codes given below:



A. Bhatkhande Sangeet Sansthan

B. Rajya Lalit Kala Academy

C. U.P. Sangeet Natak Academy

D. Bhartendu Natya Academy

List -II

(Year of Establishment)

1. 1926

2. 1962

3. 1963

4. 1975


A     B           C           D

(a) 1     2          3          4

(b) 2     3          4          1

(c) 4     3          2          1

(d) 3     2          1          4

UPPCS Main (Written) Exam 2014 : Essay: Question Paper

The Main Examination of Uttar Pradesh Combined State/Upper Subordinate Exam 2014 popularly called as UPPCS Main Exam 2014 commenced from 5 November 2014. The Preliminary of UPPCS 2014 was conducted on 3 August and the result declared on 7 October.The Essay Paper was conducted on 7 November 2014.

The Essay Paper of UPPCS Main(Written) Exam 2014 is as follows.



निर्धारित समय : तीन घंटे ]                                                                [अधिकतम अंक : 150]

Time allowed: Three Hours]                                                [Maximum Marks: 150]


नोट: (i) प्रशनपत्र तीन खंडो में विभाजित है! प्रत्येक खंड से केवल एक-एक विषय का चयन कर कुल तीन निबंध हिंदी याअंग्रेजी या उर्दू में लिखिए!

(ii) प्रत्येक निबंध में कुल प्रयुक्त्त शब्दों की अधिकतम सीमा 700 शब्दों की हैं!

(iii) प्रत्येक निबंध के लिए 50 अंक निर्धारित हैं!

Note: (i) Question paper is divided into three sections. Write three essays in Hindi or English orUrdu, Selecting one topic from each section.

(ii) Word limit of each essay is 700 words.

(iii) Each essay carries 50 marks.


Section – A

1. साहित्य और संस्कृति का अंतर्सबंध!

Internal relation between Literature and Culture.

2. नारी-शक्ति को बल कैसे दें!

How should we empower the women?

3. भारत के प्रधान मंत्री की अमेरिका-यात्रा!

Indian Prime Minister’s visit to America.



Section – B

1. भारत का मंगल-ग्रह मिशन!

Mars Mission of India.

2. मूल्य-वृद्धि: कारण और निवारण के उपाय!

Price-rise: Causes and ways for curbing it.

3. क्या भारत इस वर्ष सूखे से जूझ रहा है!

Is India facing draught this year?


Section – C

1. पिछला संसदीय चुनाव!

The last Parliamentary Election.

2. कश्मीर में बाढ़!

Flood in Kashmir.

3. स्वच्छ गंगा योजना!

Clean Ganga Mission.