Quiz

Polity Quiz-32

By:- D.K. Chaudhary

  1. How many members of Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President ?
    (A) 12
    (B) 15
    (C) 10
    (D) 202. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right ?
    (A) Right against exploitation
    (B) Equal pay for equal work
    (C) Equality before law
    (D) Right to freedom of religion3. Panchyati Raj is organised at the—
    (A) Block level
    (B) Village and block level
    (C) Village, block and district level
    (D) Village, block, district and state level4. Which of the following courts is responsible for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights ?
    (A) Supreme Court
    (B) High Court
    (C) District Court
    (D) Both (A) and (B) above

    5. Consider the following statements—
    1. In Part IX of the constitution of India, there is no provision of reservation for women in any seat to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat.
    2. The Eleventh schedule of the constitution of India distributes power between the state legislature and the panchayat just as the seventh schedule distributes powers between the union of India and the states.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    6. Consider the following statements–
    1. The Governor of a state may reserve a Bill for consideration of the President of India.
    2. The Governor of a state is competent to withdraw an ordinace issued in the state at any time.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    7. Consider the following statements—
    1. In the Parliamentary system of India. If the President of India returns a Bill for reconsideration of the Houses; and both the Houses pass the Bill again without any amendment and the Bill is again presented to the President, the President has the power to with hold his assent from the Bill.
    2. As per the constitution of India the union council of ministers is responsible both to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    8. The well-known case of Keshavananda Bharti vs The state of Kerala related to which one of the following issues ?
    (A) Acquiring private land for Government use
    (B) Exploitation of women at work place
    (C) Basic feature of the constitution of India
    (D) Reservation of jobs for the OBCs in the Government service

    9.Assertion (A) :In the Indian system, the executive cannot impose any tax without legislative sanction.
    Reason (R) : It is expressly laid down by our constitution that no tax can be imposed unless it is authorised by an appropriation Act.
    Codes :(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
    (B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
    (C) A is true but R is false
    (D) A is false but R is true

    10. Consider the following statements—
    1. The design of the National flag of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22nd July, 1947.
    2. The National Anthem was first sung on 27th December, 1911 at the Calcutta Session of Indian National Congress.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 2 only
    (C) Both 1 and 2
    (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answers with Hints

1. (A) The President nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha from the field of Literature, Art, Science and Social Work.

  1. (B) The constitution originally classified the fundamental rights into seven groups but with the elimination of right to property (Art. 31) by the 44th Amendment Act, in 1978, there are now only six groups of fundamental rights.
    Rights of equality (Art. 14-18)
    Right to freedom (Art. 19-21)
    Right aginst exploitation (Art. 23 and 24)
    Right to freedom of religion (Art. 25-28)
    Cultural and education rights (Art. 29-31)
    Right to constitutional remedies (Art. 32-35)
  2. (C) Panchayati Raj Structure is organised at top level (district), Middle level (Block Tehsil, Taluk) and Base level Village or group villages) Districts—Zila Parishad consists of the president of the Panchayat Samities and other members elected, nominated and co-opted.
  3. (A) The right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights is itself a guaranteed rights as provided for in Art. 32 of the constitution. Thus whenever the state or any other authority encroaches upon a citizen’s rights. The Supreme Court and the High Courts are empowered to issue directions or orders or writs, whichever may be appropriate for the enforcement of the right.
    The important writs are—
    Habeas Corpus, Mandamus Prohibition, Certiorari and Quowarranto.
  4. (D)
  5. (C)
  6. (D)
  7. (C)
  8. (C)
  9. (C)

Polity Quiz-31

By:- D.K. Chaudhary

  1. The Attorney General of India is appointed by—
    (A) Chief Justice of India
    (B) The Prime Minister
    (C) The President of India
    (D) The UPSC2. The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabha—
    (A) 6 members
    (B) 9 members
    (C) 12 members
    (D) 15 members3. Which of the following states/union territories have a common High Court ?
    (A) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
    (B) Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir
    (C) Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh
    (D) Assam and Bengal

    4. The most controversial amendment passed during the emergency was—
    (A) 43rd
    (B) 41st
    (C) 42nd
    (D) 44th

    5. The Union Cabinet is responsible to—
    (A) The Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha
    (B) The President of India
    (C) The Lok Sabha only
    (D) The electorate

    6. The Governor of a state in India is—
    (A) Directly elected by the people of the state
    (B) Appointed by the Prime Minister
    (C) Appointed by the President
    (D) Appointed by the State Chief Minister

    7. The total number of members of legislative council can in no case be less than—
    (A) 40
    (B) 60
    (C) 50
    (D) No minimum strength has been fixed

    8. The right to vote in India is given to all people on the basis of—
    (A) Education
    (B) Age
    (C) Property
    (D) Religion

    9. The maximum strength of the Legislative Assembly of a state is—
    (A) 450
    (B) 500
    (C) 400
    (D) 525

  2. Parliamentary system in India has been borrowed from which country ?
    (A) America
    (B) Britain
    (C) Australia
    (D) Ireland

Answers with Hints

  1. (C)
  2. (C)
  3. (C)
  4. (C)
  5. (C)
  6. (C)
  7. (A)
  8. (B)
  9. (B)

10. (B)
Polity Quiz-30

By:- D.K. Chaudhary

 

1.All the following are fundamental rights guaranteed by the Indian constitution except—
(A) The right to equality
(B) The right against exploitation
(C) The right to adequate means of livelihood
(D) The right to freedom of religion

2. The total number of members in the legislative council of a state cannot exceed—
(A) One-fourth of the total numbers in the legislative Assembly
(B) One-third of the total number of members of the legislative five assembly
(C) One-sixth of the total number of members of the legislative Assembly
(D) No such limit has been fixed

3. Sikkim was made an integral part of India under the—
(A) 42nd Amendment
(B) 40th Amendment
(C) 39th Amendment
(D) 36th Amendment

4. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is—
(A) 500
(B) 525
(C) 542
(D) 552

5. How many language have been recognised by the constitution ?
(A) 13
(B) 18
(C) 15
(D) 22

6. The number of Anglo-Indians who can be nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha is—
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

7. Money bills can be introduced in the state legislature with the prior consent of—
(A) The Speaker
(B) The Chief Minister
(C) The Governor
(D) The President

8. To be eligible for election as President of India a person must have completed the age of—
(A) 35 years
(B) 40 years
(C) 30 years
(D) 25 years

9. The Planning Commission of India is—
(A) A statutory body
(B) An advisory body
(C) A constitutional body
(D) An independent and autonomous body

10. Which of the following states/union territories has a Legislative Assembly consisting of only 30 members ?
(A) Puducherry
(B) Mizoram
(C) Goa
(D) All the above

 

Ans wer

 

  1. (C)
  2. (B)
  3. (D)
  4. (D) According to the constitution, maximum strength of Lok Sabha is 552. States are represented by 530 members and the Union Territories by 20 members. The President nominates two Anglo Indian members if that community does not have sufficient representation in the house. The present strength of Lok Sabha is 545. There are 530 members from states 13 members from Union Territories and two members are nominated by the President.
  5. (D) There are 22 languages in the 8th schedule of the constitution.
  6. (A)
  7. (C)
  8. (A)
  9. (B)
  10. (A)

Polity Quiz-29

By:- D.K. Chaudhary

  1. Which one of the following is correct about the Supreme Court regarding its judgement ?
    (A) It can change the judgement
    (B) It cannot change the judgement
    (C) Only the Chief Justice of India can change the judgement
    (D) Only the ministry of law can change the judgement2. The Indian constitution borrowed the directive principles of the state policy from the constitution of which of the following countries ?
    (A) United Kingdom (U.K.) Britain
    (B) United States of America (USA)
    (C) Ireland
    (D) Japan3. Which among the following is the correct expression of the term ‘Secular’ in India ?
    (A) India has many religious
    (B) Indians have religious freedom
    (C) To follow the religion depends upon the will of an individual
    (D) There is no religion of the state in India4. Which among the following is/are appointed by the President of India ?
    1. Vice-Chairman of the planning commission.
    2. Chairman of the finance commission.
    3. Chief Ministers of the union territories.
    Select the correct answer by using the following codes.
    Codes :
    (A) 1 and 2 are correct
    (B) 2 and 3 are correct
    (C) 1 and 3 are correct
    (D) Only 1 is correct

    5. Which one of the following Indian states does not keep its own High Court ?
    (A) Orissa
    (B) Sikkim
    (C) Himachal Pradesh
    (D) Manipur

    6. Which of the following is not more a Fundamental Right ?
    (A) Right to equality
    (B) Right to freedom
    (C) Right to property
    (D) Right against exploitation

    7. The Indian constitution establishes India as a—
    (A) Theocracy
    (B) Republic
    (C) Democratic Republic
    (D) None of the above

  2. The total number of fundamental duties mentioned is the constitution of India now is—
    (A) 10
    (B) 11
    (C) 12
    (D) 139. Chief Justice of High Court is appointed by—
    (A) President
    (B) Governor
    (C) Chief Justice of India
    (D) President at the advice of Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the concerned state10. Monthly salary of President of India is—
    (A) Rs. 10,000
    (B) Rs. 8,000
    (C) Rs. 15,000
    (D) Rs. 1,50,000
  3. (A) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (D)

Polity Quiz-28

By:- D.K. Chaudhary

1.Which one of the following describes India a secular state ?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Preamble to the constitution
(C) 9th Schedule
(D) Directive principles

2. Which one of the following statements about the state Governors is not true ?
(A) He is a part of the state legislature
(B) He can pardon a sentence of death
(C) He appoints judges of the state High Court
(D) He has no emergency powers

3. Which of the following constitutional amendment intergrated Sikkim as a full-fledged state of the Indian union ?
(A) 34th
(B) 35th
(C) 36th
(D) 37th

4. Nyaya Panchayats in Panchayati Raj system have no powers of awarding imprisonment except in the state of—
(A) Bihar
(B) Jammu-Kashmir
(C) Maharashtra
(D) West Bengal

5. Which of the following Indian states has no Panchayati Raj Institution ?
(A) Assam
(B) Tripura
(C) Kerala
(D) Nagaland

6. Which one of the following states has the highest number of reserve seats for the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Gujarat

7. Which one of the following is the subject of concurrent list ?
(A) Police
(B) Criminal matters
(C) Radio and Television
(D) Foreign affairs

8. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(a) Article-164
(b) Article-155
(c) Article-75
(d) Article-54
List-II
1. Appointment of the state Chief Minister and Council of Ministers.
2. Appointment of the Governor.
3. Appointment of the Union Prime Minister and Council of Ministers.
4. Election of the President of India.
5. Composition of Legislative Assemblies.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 2 4 5
(C) 2 1 3 5
(D) 2 1 4 5

9. Who among the following gave the following statements about the Indian constitution ?
“Indian constitution strikes a good balance between extreme regedity and too much flexibility.”
(A) B. R. Ambedkar
(B) M. V. Pylee
(C) Alexanderowicz
(D) K. C. Wheare

10. Which one of the following is the period for the legislative council to detain the ordinary bills ?
(A) 3 Months
(B) 4 Months
(C) 6 Months
(D) 14 days

 

Answer

  1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (A)
    (D) 10 (A)

राजनीति प्रश्नोत्तरी-18

द्वारा: – डीके चौधरी

 

  1. निम्नलिखित में से कौन भारत का वर्णन एक धर्मनिरपेक्ष राज्य?
    (ए) मौलिक अधिकार
    (बी) के संविधान की प्रस्तावना
    (सी) 9 वीं अनुसूची
    (डी) निर्देशक सिद्धांतों
  1. जो राज्यपालों के बारे में निम्नलिखित बयानों में से एक सच नहीं है?
    (ए) वह राज्य विधायिका का एक हिस्सा है
    (बी) वह मौत की सजा को क्षमा कर सकते हैं
    (सी) वह राज्य के उच्च न्यायालय के न्यायाधीशों की नियुक्ति करती
    (डी ) वह कोई आपात अधिकार है
  2. निम्नलिखित संवैधानिक संशोधन में से कौन सा भारतीय संघ के एक पूर्ण राज्य के रूप में सिक्किम एकीकृत?
    (ए) 34 वें
    (बी) के 35 वें
    (सी) 36 वें
    (डी) 37 वें
  3. पंचायती राज व्यवस्था में न्याय पंचायतों केराज्य में छोड़कर देने कारावास का कोई अधिकार है
    (ए)बिहार
    (बी) जम्मू-कश्मीर
    (सी) महाराष्ट्र
    (डी) पश्चिम बंगाल
  4. भारतीय राज्यों निम्न में से कौन सा कोई पंचायती राज संस्थान? है
    (ए) असम
    (बी) त्रिपुरा
    (सी) केरल
    (डी) नगालैंड
  5. निम्नलिखित में से कौन राज्यों में से एक लोकसभा में अनुसूचित जनजातियों के लिए आरक्षित सीटों की संख्या सबसेज्यादा है?
    (ए) बिहार
    (बी) उत्तर प्रदेश
    (सी) मध्य प्रदेश
    (डी) गुजरात
  6. निम्नलिखित में से कौन समवर्ती सूची का विषय है?
    (ए) पुलिस
    (बी) आपराधिक मामलों
    (सी) रेडियो और टेलीविजन
    (घ) विदेशी मामलों
  7. निम्नलिखित में से कौन भारतीय संविधान के बारे में निम्नलिखित बयान दे दिया?
    “भारतीय संविधान चरम regedity और बहुत अधिक लचीलेपन के बीच एक अच्छा संतुलन बनाता है।”
    (ए) बी आर अम्बेडकर
    (बी) एमवी Pylee
    (सी) Alexanderowicz
    (डी) के.सी. Wheare

9 निम्नलिखित में से कौन विधान परिषद साधारण बिलों को गिरफ्तार करने के लिए समय है?
(ए) 3 महीने
(बी) के 4 महीने
(सी) 6 महीने
(डी) 14 दिन

 

उत्तर

  1. (बी) 2 (सी) 3. (सी) 4. (बी) 5. (डी) 6. (सी) 7. (बी)
    8
     (डी) 9. (A)

Polity Quiz-27

By:- D.K. Chaudhary

  1. The provisions related to official language of India can be amended by—
    (A) Simple majority
    (B) Minimum 2/3 majority
    (C) Minimum ¾ majority
    (D) Cannot be amended2. Who among the following can participate in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament ?
    (A) Vice-President
    (B) Solicitor-General
    (C) Chief Justice
    (D) Attorney-General3. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
    List-I (Officers)
    (a) Vice-President of India
    (b) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
    (c) Solicitor General of India
    (d) Attorney General of India
    List-II (Institutions)
    1. Public Accounts Committee
    2. Meeting of Lok Sabha
    3. Rajya Sabha
    4. Supreme Court
    5. Committee on public undertakings.
    Codes :
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (A) 3 1 4 2
    (B) 2 3 1 4
    (C) 4 2 3 1
    (D) 1 4 2 34. The National Development Council (NDC)—
    1. Discusses the progress of the National Plan.
    2. Suggests the ways to achieve goals of the National Plan.
    3. Gives guidelines to for mulate the National Plan.
    4. Suggests plan allocations.
    Considering the above statements, select the correct answer from the codes given below.
    Codes :
    (A) 1, 2 and 3
    (B) 2, 3 and 4
    (C) 1, 2 and 4
    (D) All of the above5. The Indian Parliament cannot legislate on the subject of state list unless—
    1. The President of India directs it to do so.
    2. The Rajya Sabha passes a resolution that it is necessary to do so in National interests.
    3. The speaker of the Vidhan Sabha certifies that the legislation is necessary.
    4. There is National emergency
    Considering the above statements, select the correct answer from the codes given below—
    Codes :
    (A) 1, 2 and 3
    (B) 2, 3 and 4
    (C) 1 and 2
    (D) 2 and 46. Prior Sanction of the President of India is required before introducing the bill, in the Parliament on—
    1. Formation of a new state.
    2. Affecting taxation in which states are interested.
    3. Altering the boundaries of the states.
    4. Money bill
    Considering the above statements.
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
    Codes :
    (A) 1, 2 and 3
    (B) 2, 3 and 4
    (C) 1, 2 and 4
    (D) All of the above7. Which of the following statements about the Vice-President of India are not correct ?
    1. In order to be Vice-President a person must be qualified for election as a number of the house
    of the people.
    2. A member of the state legislative can seek election to that office.
    3. The term of the office of the Vice-President is the same as that of the President.
    4. He can be removed through a formal impleachment.
    Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
    Codes :
    (A) 1 and 2
    (B) 2 and 3
    (C) 1 and 4
    (D) 3 and 48. Given below are two statements—
    Assertion (A) :The supreme command of the defence forces is vested in the president.
    Reason (R) :The President’s power as commander in-chief are in dependent of legislative control.
    In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    (C) (A) is true but (R) is false
    (D) (A) is false but (R) is true9. The stages in the normal financial legislation included.
    1. Presentation of the budget.
    2. Discussion of the budget.
    3. Passing of Appropriation bill.
    4. Vote on Account.
    5. Passing of the finance bill.
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
    Codes :
    (A) 1, 2 and 3
    (B) 1, 3 and 5
    (C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    (D) 1, 2, 3 and 510. In case the post of President of India falls vacant and there is also no Vice-President, than who among the following would be the acting President ?
    (A) Viec-Chairman of Rajya Sabha
    (B) Attorney General of India
    (C) Lok Sabha Speaker
    (D) Chief Justice of Supreme Court

 

Answers :
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (C)
9. (D) 10. (D).

polity quiz 4 april

1‘Right to constitutional remedy’ has been mentioned in which article of the constitution ?
(A) 30
(B) 31
(C) 35
(D) 32

2. A motion of no confidence against the Council of Ministers can be moved in Lok Sabha if it is
supported by at least—
(A) 50 members
(B) 55 members
(C) 100 members
(D) One-fifth of total number

3. The function of the Protem Speaker is to—
(A) Conduct the proceedings of Houses in absence of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker
(B) Officiate as Speaker when the Speaker is unlikely to be elected
(C) Swear-in members and hold charge till a regular Speaker is elected
(D) Checks if the election certificates of the members are in order

4. The Comptroller and Auditor General acts as—
(A) The guardian of people’s liberties
(B) The guardian of public money
(C) The chief financial adviser of Govt. of India
(D) All of the above

5. ‘Vote on Account’ is a grant voted/passed by Parliament—
(A) After the budget and grant has been voted/passed by Lok Sabha
(B) Grant to manage the administrative work in Interim period till budget and grant for financial year are passed
(C) Passage of account of expenditure is actually done during last year
(D) Approval of account of public undertakings

6. The defeat of Government in Rajya Sabha leads to—
(A) Its dismissal by the President
(B) Resignation by Prime Minister
(C) Advice by President to Prime Minister to relinquish office
(D) None of these

7. The Parliament or a state legislature can declare a seat vacant if a member absents himself without permission from the sessions for—
(A) 30 days
(B) 60 days
(C) 90 days
(D) Does not has this power

8. The tenth schedule of Indian constitution deals with—
(A) Anti-defection legislation
(B) Panchayati Raj
(C) Land Reforms
(D) Distribution of powers between the Union and States

9. The 84th Amendment Act has frozen the total number of existing seats in the Lok Sabha on the basis of 1971 census. They shall remain unaltered till the first census to be taken after the year—
(A) 2010
(B) 2015
(C) 2021
(D) 2026

10. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Public Accounts committee
(b) Committee on petitions
(c) Joint committee on stock market scan
(d) Department committees
List-II
1. Adhoc committee
2. Standing committees
3. Financial committee
4. Functional committee
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 4 3 2
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 2 1 3

Answers

  1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (C)
    4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (A)9. (D) 10. (C
  1. The office of the president can fall vacant due to
    A. resignation
    B. death
    C. removal
    D. All of the above2. The president can dismiss a member of the council of ministers
    A. on his own
    B. on the recommendation of the prime ministers
    C. only under emergency conditions
    D. ith the consent of the speaker3. The president demand for further reforms, attended with the dislocation caused by the non-cooperation movement, led the British government to appoint a Statutory Commission in 1927. This commission was headed by
    A. Sri John Simon
    B. Lord Chelmsford
    C. Lord Minto
    D. E.S. Montague4. The office of the prime minister of India
    A. has a constitutional basis
    B. has a statutory basis
    C. has conventional basis
    D. None of the above5. The powers to legislate with respect to any matter not enumerated in any of the three lists are mentioned as residuary powers. Which of the following is empowered to determine finally as to whether or not a particular matter falls in this category
    A. Lok Sabha
    B. Judiciary
    C. Rajya Sabha
    D. Parliament6. The members of the parliamentary committee
    A. are appointed by the president in consultation with the prime minister
    B. are appointed by the president on the recommendation of the speaker
    C. are taken from various groups and parties in Parliament in proportion to their respective strength
    D. both (b) and (c)7. The name of a candidate for the office of president of India may be proposed by
    A. any five citizens of India
    B. any five members of the Parliament
    C. any one member of the Electoral College
    D. any ten members of the Electoral College8. The Parliament can restrict or abrogate by law, fundamental rights with respect to
    A. the members of the armed forces
    B. the forces charged with the maintenance of public order
    C. the persons employed in any bureau or other organization established by the state for purpose of intelligence
    D. All of the above

    9. Preamble enshrines the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity – ideals inspired by the

    A. Russian Revolution
    B. Irish Revolution
    C. French Revolution
    D. US Constitution

    10. The minimum number of members that must be present to hold the meeting of the Lok Sabha is
    A. one-fourth of the total membership
    B. one-tenth of the total membership of the Houses
    C. 50 percent strength of the Lok Sabha
    D. at least 100 membersANSWERS:
    1. D
    2. B
    3. A
    4. A
    5. B
    6. C
    7. D
    8. D
    9. C
    10. B

Polity Quiz 25 , 3 April 2016

By:- D.K. Chaudhary

1. A member of the Union Public Service Commission can be removed by the—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(D) Chairman of the UPSC

2. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists—
List-I (Names)
(a) Hobbes
(b) Rouseau
(c) Locke
(d) Hitler
List-II (Events)
1. French Revolution
2. Glorious Revolution
3. Execution of Charles I
4. Second World War
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 1 2 4 3

3. The bureaucracy performs—
(A) Only administrative functions
(B) Only judicial functions
(C) Only legislative functions
(D) Administrative as well as quasi-judicial and quasi-legislative functions

4. The President of the Union of India has the same constitutional authority as the—
(A) British Monarch
(B) President of USA
(C) President of Pakistan
(D) President of France

5. Which organ is the custodian of the National purse ?
(A) Executive
(B) Judiciary
(C) Legislature
(D) Civil Servants

6. Which one of the following is not a constitutional body ?
(A) Election Commission
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Union Public Service Commission

7. Who can be the member of the Rajya Sabha but can speak both in Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha ?
(A) The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(B) Leader of the House in the Rajya Sabha
(C) Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha
(D) Ministers who are members of the Rajya Sabha
8. Who was the first Deputy Prime Minister of India ?
(A) Morarji Desai
(B) Vallabhbhai Patel
(C) G. B. Pant
(D) Devi Lal

9. The right to vote in elections to a Parliament is a—
(A) Fundamental Right
(B) Political Right
(C) Legal Right
(D) Natural Right

10. Under which constitution amendment, 10 fundamental duties of the citizens were included in the constitution ?
(A) 24th
(B) 38th
(C) 42nd
(D) 44th
Answer

  1. (A)
  2. (B)
  3. (D)
    4. (A)
  4. (C)
  5. (C)
  6. (D)
  7. (B)
  8. (B)
  9. (C)
  1. To be officially recognised by the speaker of the Lok Sabha as an opposition Group, a party or coalition of parties must have at least—
    (A) 55 members
    (B) 60 members
    (C) 80 members
    (D) 1/3 of total members of the Lok Sabha2. Which of the following is not included in the directive principles of state policy ?
    (A) Prohibition of liquor
    (B) Right to work
    (C) Equal wage for equal work
    (D) Right to information3. Right to education to all children between the age of 6 to 14 years is—
    (A) Included in the directive principles of state policy
    (B) A Fundamental Right
    (C) A Statutory Right
    (D) None of these4. How many times has financial emergency been declared in India so far ?
    (A) 5 times
    (B) 4 times
    (C) Once
    (D) Never5. Which of the following Motions can the Council of Ministers in India move ?
    (A) No confidence Motion
    (B) Censure Motion
    (C) Adjournment Motion
    (D) Confidence Motion6. Which one of the following expenditures is not charged on the consolidated fund of India?
    (A) Salary and allowances of the President of India
    (B) Salary and allowances of the Governor of a State of India
    (C) Salary and allowances of the justice of the Supreme Court of India
    (D) Salary and allowances of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha7. Which one of the following is the time limit for the ratification of an emergency period by the
    Parliament ?
    (A) 14 days
    (B) 1 Month
    (C) 3 Months
    (D) 6 Months8. Who among the following is constitutionally empowered to declare a geographic area as a scheduled area ?
    (A) Governor
    (B) Chief Minister
    (C) Prime Minister
    (D) President9. Given below are two statements—
    Assertion (A) :Powers for conducting elections to the Parliament and state legislatures in a free and fair manner have been given to an independent body i.e. the Election Commission.
    Reason (R) :Power of removal of Election Commissioners is with the executive.
    In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
    Codes :
    (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
    (C) A is true but R is false
    (D) A is false but R is true10. Who has given this statement ?
    “Man is born free but he is always in chains.”
    (A) Locke
    (B) Rousseaue
    (C) Benthan
    (D) Robert Mill

Answers with Hints
1. (A) The number of members of the opposition party should be at least one-tenth of the total membership of the Lok Sabha.
2. (D)
3. (B) The Right to Education to all children between the age of 6 to 14 years has been included as a fundamental right in the Article—21A of the constitution through the Constitution Amendment Act, 86 of the year 2002.
4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (B)

Polity Quiz 23 , 1 April 2016

1.Which are the two states (other than UP) having the highest representation in Lok Sabha ?
(A) Bihar and Madhya Pradesh
(B) Bihar and Maharashtra
(C) Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu and Rajasthan

2. What is the period of appointment of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India ?
(A) 6 years
(B) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
(C) Upto 65 years of age
(D) Upto 64 years of age

3. The Finance Commission is premarily Concerned with recommending to the president about—
(A) The principle governing grants in aid to be given to the states
(B) Distributing the net proceeds of the taxes between the centre and the states
(C) Neither (A) Nor (B)
(D) Both (A) and (B)

4. The Parliament can make law for the whole or any part of India for implementing international
treaties—
(A) With the consent of all the states
(B) With the consent of majority of states
(C) With the consent of states conerned
(D) Without the consent of any state

5. Rajya Sabha can delay the Finance Bill sent for its consideration by the Lok Sabha for a maximum period of—
(A) One month
(B) One year
(C) Seven days
(D) Fourteen days

6. The first day session of the Indian Constituent Assembly was chaired by—
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(D) Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha

7. Which one of the following is not a department in the Ministry of Human Resource Development ?
(A) Department of elementary education and literacy
(B) Department of Secondary and Higher Education
(C) Department of technical education
(D) Department of women and child development

8. Who is known as the First Law Officer of India ?
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Law Minister of India
(C) Attorney General of India
(D) Law Secretary

9. The Comptroller and Auditor General is appointed by the President. He can be remvoed—
(A) By the President
(B) On the address from both Houses of Parliament
(C) By the Supreme Court
(D) On the recommendation of the President by the Supreme Court

10. Who will decide the office of profit ?
(A) President and Governor
(B) Union Parliament
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Union Public Service Commission

Answer

1. (B) 2. (B)
3. (D) Finance Commission is a constitutional body and plays an important role in settling centre state financial relations.
4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (A)

Polity Quiz 22,  30march 2016
1. Setting up of which one of the following is not stated in the constitution of India ?
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Election Commission
(D) Union Public Service Commission
 
2. A Money Bill in the Parliament can be introduced only with the recommendation of the—
(A) President of India
(B) Union Cabinet
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) Union Finance Minister
 
3. Panchayats at the intermediate level may not be constituted in a state, having a population less than—
(A) Ten Lakhs
(B) Fifteen Lakhs
(C) Twenty Lakhs
(D) Twenty five Lakhs
 
4. Who has been the only Lok Sabha Speaker to have become the President of India ?
(A) Gyani Zail Singh
(B) V. V. Giri
(C) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
(D) K. R. Narayanan
 
5. What does the Constitution (Ninety Second Amendment) Act, 2003 deal with ?
(A) Creation of a separate National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
(B) Cyber Crime
(C) Inclusion of Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali languages in the Eighth Schedule
(D) Making right to free and compulsory education a fundamental right
 
6. Who among the following is the Chairman of the Steering Committee to oversee the functions of the National Authority Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) ?
(A) The President
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The National Security Adviser
(D) The Cabinet Secretary
 
7. Who presides over the joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha ?
(A) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(B) The Vice-President
(C) The President
(D) The Union Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
 
8. The electoral college that elects the Vice-President of India consists of—
(A) Members of Rajya Sabha only
(B) Elected members of both the houses of Parliament
(C) Members of both the houses of Parliament
(D) Members of the Rajya Sabha and the Legislative Assemblies of states
 
9. Which one of the following political theories advocates the withering away of the state and ushering in a new society in which there will be no state and no ceasses ?
(A) Liberalism
(B) Democratic Socialism
(C) Marxism
(D) Fabian Socialism
 
10. Recently, who among the following took over as Chief Election Commissioner from B.B. Tandon ?
(A) M. Damodaran
(B) N. Gopalaswamy
(C) Y. V. Reddy
(D) S. Y. Qureshi
 
Answers :
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (B)

Polity Quiz-21, 29 March 2016

1. When the offices of both Speaker and Deputy Speaker falls vacant –
A. The members of Lok Sabha immediately elect a Speaker.
B. The senior most willing member of Lok Sabha becomes the speaker.
C. The President appoints any member of Lok Sabha as speaker.
D. The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over till the next speaker is elected.

2. With Regard to Constitutional Amendment Bill –
A. The President can reject the bill but cannot return the bill.
B. The President cannot reject the bill but can return the bill.
C. The President can neither reject the bill nor return the bill.
D. The President can either reject the bill or return the bill.

3. The correct statement/s with regard to Ordinance making power of President is/are –
1. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend tax laws.
2. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend the constitution.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.

4. The Vice President can be removed from office before completion of his term in which of the following manner?
A. She/he can be impeached in similar manner as President.
B. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by special majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
C. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by simple majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
D. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.

5. The ‘Council of Ministers’ does not consist of:
1. Deputy Ministers.
2. Parliamentary Secretaries.
3. Deputy Chairman – Planning Commission.
A. 1, 2 & 3.
B. 2 only.
C. 3 only.
D. None of these.

6. The Representatives of states & UT in the Rajya Sabha are elected by:
1. The members of the State Legislative Assembly only.
2. The elected members of the State Legislative Assembly only.
3. The system of proportional representation by single transferrable vote.
4. The system of proportional representation by List.
A. 1 & 3.
B. 1 & 4.
C. 2 & 3.
D. 2 & 4.

7. Which of the following criteria is laid down by the constitution for a person to be chosen a member of parliament:
1. If a candidate is to contest a seat reserved for SC / ST, he must be a member of a SC / ST in any state or Union Territory.
2. He/she must not have been punished for preaching and practicing social crimes such as untouchability, dowry & sati.
3. He/she must not have any interest in government contracts, works or services.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 & 3 only.
C. 1, 2, & 3.
D. None of these.

8. Which of the following statements are correct.
1. If a MLA is elected to be a MP, his seat in parliament becomes vacant if he does not resign his seat in the state legislature within 14 days.
2. If a person is elected to two seats in a house, he should exercise his option for one. Otherwise both seats become vacant.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.

9. The office of the ‘Whip’ is mentioned in:
A. Constitution of India.
B. Rules of the house.
C. In a separate Parliamentary Statute.
D. None.

10. The office of the Leader of the opposition is mentioned in:
A. Constitution of India.
B. Rules of the house.
C. A separate Parliamentary Statute.
D. None.

Answer
1. C
2. C
3. B – An ordinance can alter or amend a tax law however it cannot be issued to amend the constitution.
4. D
5. D – Deputy Chairman of PC is given Cabinet rank.
6. C – The representatives of each State and two Union territories are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of that State and by the members of the Electoral College for that Union Territory, as the case may be, in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. The Electoral College for the National Capital Territory of Delhi consists of the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of Delhi, and that for Puducherry consists of the elected members of the Puducherry Legislative Assembly.
7. D – All these criteria are laid down in the Representation of People Act 1951 & Not in the constitution.
8. C
9. D
10. C

Indian Polity Quiz-20
 
1. In which of the following case/s the six rights guaranteed by article 19 can be suspended?
1. External Aggression.
2. Internal Emergency.
3. When Martial Law is in force.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 & 3 only.
C. 1 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3.
 
2. Which of the following rights is/are available to foreigners in India.
1. Right to Education.
2. Right to Information.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
 
3. Article 21 declares that –
“No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.”
The protection under article 21 is:
A. Against arbitrary legislative action.
B. Against arbitrary executive action.
C. Both A & B.
D. None.
 
4. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct:
1. Right to Information is a fundamental right enshrined in article 19 (1) of the constitution.
2. Supreme Court of India is not under the purview of RTI act.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
 
5. Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the FR of an aggrieved citizen. Consider the following statements w.r.t article 32.
1. Parliament can suspend this right during national emergency.
2. Only SC shall have the power to issue writs for the enforcement of any of the FR.
Correct statement/s is/are:
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None
 
6. Which of the following right/s is/are enshrined in Article 21 – “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.”
1. Right to speedy trial.
2. Right against delayed execution.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None
 
7. Which of the following writs can be issued against administrative authorities?
A. Prohibition, Certiorari & Mandamus.
B. Certiorari & Mandamus.
C. Prohibition & Mandamus.
D. Prohibition & Certiorari.
 
8. The directive principles were made non – justiciable and legally non – enforceable because:
1. The country did not possess sufficient financial resources to implement them.
2. There was widespread backwardness in the country that could stand in the way of implementation.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None
 
9. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct.
1. The directive principles are meant to establish Political Democracy.
2. The directive principles are meant to establish Social Democracy.
3. The directive principles are meant to establish Economic Democracy.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 & 3 only.
C. 1 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3.
 
10. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct.
 
1. Fundamental Rights enjoy legal supremacy over Directive principles.
2. The parliament can amend the Fundamental Rights for implementing the directive principles.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
 
 
 
Answer
1. C
2. A – RTI available to Indian citizens only.
3. C
4. A – SC is under the ambit of RTI.
5. D – Only President can suspend this right during national emergency. HC can also issue writs for enforcement of FR.
6. C
7. B – Prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies.
8. C
9. B – FR establishes political democracy.
10. C – Minerva Mills case (1980) – For further explanation refer Laxmikanth 8.7
1. संसद का सदस्य निर्वाचित हुए बिना कोई व्यक्ति कितने माह से अधिक कोई व्यक्ति मंत्री पद धारण नहीं कर सकता?
Answer: छह माह
2. राष्ट्रपति द्वारा किसकी सलाह पर नियंत्रक एवं महालेखा परीक्षक की नियुक्ति की जाती है?
Answer: मंत्रिमंडल की
3. 23 अगस्त, 1954 के पूर्व राज्यसभा को किस नाम से जाना जाता था?
Answer: काउंसिल ऑफ स्टेट्स
4. लोकसभा में विपक्षी दल के नेता के रूप मान्यता प्राप्त करने के लिए दल द्वारा न्यूनतम कितने प्रतिशत सीटें प्राप्त करना आवश्यक है?
Answer: 10 प्रतिशत
5. आपातकाल के समय संसद कानून बनाकर लोकसभा का कार्यकाल कितनी अवधि के लिए बढ़ा सकती है?
Answer: 1 वर्ष के लिए
6. यदि लोकसभा अध्यक्ष अनुपस्थित हो, तो संसद के संयुक्त अधिवेशन की अध्यक्षता कौन करता है?
Answer: लोकसभा उपाध्यक्ष
7. उच्चतम न्यायालय की स्थापना, गठन एवं शक्तियों का विनियमन करने के लिए विधि बनाने की शक्ति किसे है?
Answer: संसद को
8. कौन-सा आयोग उम्मीदवारों द्वारा चुनाव-खर्च की राशि सुनिश्चित करवाता है?
Answer: निर्वाचन आयोग
9. किस प्रधानमंत्री के कार्यकाल में मतदान की उम्र सीमा 21 वर्ष से घटाकर 18 वर्ष की दी गई?
Answer: राजीव गांधी के कार्यकाल में
10. सर्वोच्च न्यायालय के न्यायाधीशों के वेतन एवं भत्ते किस माध्यम से दिए जाते हैं?
Answer: भारत के संचित निधि से
INDIAN POLITY QUIZ-18 ,22 March 2016
1. जो व्यक्ति राष्ट्रपति पद के निर्वाचन में उम्मीदवार होता है, उसे नामांकन पत्र के साथ कितनी राशि की जमानत राशि जमा करनी होती है?
Answer: 15000 रु.
2. किस संविधान संशोधन के अनुसार राष्ट्रति मंत्रिपरिषद् से अपनी सलाह पर पुनर्विचार के लिए कह सकता है?
Answer: 44वें संविधान संशोधन 1978 के अनुसार
3. भूमि अधिग्रहण से संबंधित विधेयक किसके सिफारिश के बिना संसद में नहीं पेश किये जा सकते हैं?
Answer: राष्ट्रपति के
4. राष्ट्रपति के चुनाव के लिए प्रस्तावकों एवं अनुमोदकों की कम-से-कम कितनी संख्या होनी चाहिए?
Answer: क्रमश: 50 व 50
5. 3 मई, 1969 को डॉ. जाकिर हुसैन की मृत्यु के बाद किसे कार्यकारी राष्ट्रपति बनाया गया था?
Answer: वी.वी. गिरि को
6. राष्ट्रपति ने आंतरिक गड़बड़ी के आधार पर राष्ट्रीय संकट की घोषणा सर्वप्रथम कब की थी?
Answer: 1975 ई. में
7. एक ही समय में यदि राष्ट्रपति और उपराष्ट्रपति दोनों को पद रिक्त हो जाए तो राष्ट्रपति के कृत्यों का निर्वहन कौन करता है?
Answer: भारत का मुख्य न्यायाधीश
8. जब कार्यरत मंत्रिपरिषद् के विरुद्ध लोकसभा में अविश्वास प्रस्ताव पारित हो जाता है, तब किसे त्यागपत्र देना पड़ता है?
Answer: मंत्रिपरिषद् को
9. यदि राष्ट्रपति यह चाहता है कि किसी बात पर मंत्रिपरिषद् विचार करे तो वह इसकी संसूचना किसे देता है?
Answer: प्रधानमंत्री को
10. भारतीय जनता पार्टी द्वारा वाजपेयी के नेतृत्व में गठित प्रथम मंत्रिमंडल कितने दिन सत्ता में रहा?
Answer: 13 दिन
INDIAN POLITY QUIZ-8 ,21 March 2016
 
1. Which of the following is not the member of National Development Council?
 
(a) All members of union cabinet
(b) Chief ministers of all states
(c) Administrators of all union territories
(d) President of India
 
2. Which of the following states have least numbers of legislative councils?
 
(a) Bihar
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Karnataka
(d) Jammu & Kashmir
 
3. Anti defection law is mentioned in the……
 
(a) 10th schedule of constitution
(b) 11th schedule of constitution
(c) 9th schedule of constitution
(d) 8th schedule of constitution
 
4. Who can disqualify a member of parliament?
 
(a) Speaker
(b) President after consulting the election commission
(c) Elections commission alone
(d) None of these
 
5. Which of the following article tells about the composition of parliament?
 
(a) Art. 79
(b) Art. 76
(c) Art. 62
(d) Art. 83
 
6. Which of the following article defines the money bill?
 
(a) Art. 112
(b) Art. 110
(c) Art. 111
(d) Art. 312
 
7. Which of the following article says that India will have a Vice President?
 
(a) Art. 61
(b) Art. 62
(c) Art. 63
(d) Art. 52
 
8. Joint sitting of parliament is mentioned in…….
 
(a) Article 110
(b) Article 112
(c) Article 108
(d) Article 76
 
9. The concept of judicial review in Indian constitution is taken from ……
 
(a) Australia
(b) USA
(c) Russia
(d) Ireland
 
10. The reservation of seats for SCs/STs in state assemblies is mentioned in the…..
 
(a) Art. 332
(b) Art. 331
(c) Art. 335
(d) Art. 312
 
 
 
Answer
1-d
2-d
3-a
4-b
5-a
6-b
7-c
8-c
9-b
10-a

भारतीय राजव्यवस्था एवं शासन क्विज | Indian Polity Quiz- 8, 21 march 2016

1. भारतीय संविधान की योजना की घोषण के बाद संविधान सभा का कब पुन:गठन किया गया?
Answer: 3 जून, 1947 को

2. भारत में संविधान सभा का गठन किस योजना के प्रस्तावों के अनुसार किया गया?
Answer: कैबिनेट मिशन योजना

3. संविधान सभा के लिए चुनी गयी सभी महिलाएं किस पार्टी से संबद्ध थीं?
Answer: कांग्रेस पार्टी

4. शक संवत् को राष्ट्रीय कैलेण्डर पंचांग के रूप में संविधान सभा द्वारा कब अपनाया गया?
Answer: 22 मार्च, 1947 को

5. नये राज्यों को गठिन करने या विद्यमान राज्यों के नामों, सीमा परिवर्तन आदि का अधिकार किसे प्राप्त है?
Answer: संसद को

6. किसने संविधान के भाग-3 को संविधान का ‘सर्वाधिक आलोकित भाग’ कहा है?
Answer: डॉ. बी. आर. अंबेडकर ने

7. विशिष्ट सामाजिक सेवा करने वाले व्यक्तियों को भारत रत्न, पद्म विभूषण, पद्म भूषण और पद्मश्री देने की शुरूआत भारत सरकार ने किस वर्ष की थी?
Answer: 1954 ई. में

8. कौन-सा संविधान संशोधन नीति-निदेशक सिद्धांतों को मौलिक अधिकारों पर श्रेष्ठता प्रदान करता है?
Answer: 42वां संविधान संशोधन

9. संविधान के किस अनुच्छेद में भारत के लिए एक समान सिविल संहिता की व्यवस्था की गई है?
Answer: अनु. 44 में

10. संविधान के किस अंग/अध्याय में सामाजिक, राजनीतिक और आर्थिक न्याय की व्यवस्था चर्चित है?
Answer: प्रस्तावना में


Que (01): राज्यपाल को वेतन तथा भत्ता दिया जाता है –

[A] कंसोलिडेटेड फंड आॅफ स्टेट से
[B] कंसोलिडेटेड फंड आॅफ इंडिया से
[C] कन्टिन्जेसी फंड आॅफ इंडिया से
[D]A एव B दोनों से

Que (02): राज्यसभा को भंग करने का अधिकार किसे प्राप्त है ?
[A] राष्ट्रपति
[B] उपराष्ट्रपति
[C] उच्चतम न्यायालय
[D] इनमें से कोई नहीं

Que (03): संविधान में मंत्रिमंडल (कैबिनेट) शब्द का एक ही बार प्रयोग हुआ है, और वह है –
[A] अनुच्छेद 352
[B] अनुच्छेद 76
[C] अनुच्छेद 356
[D] अनुच्छेद 74

Que (04):  संविधान में हमारे राष्ट्र का उल्लेख किस नाम से किया गया है ?
[A] भारत तथा इंडिया
[B] केवल भारत
[C] हिंदुस्तान तथा इंडिया
[D] भारत, हिंदुस्तान तथा इंडिया

Que (05): भारत शासन द्वारा राजकीय चिन्ह कब से अंगीकृत किया गया है ?
[A] 15 अगस्त 1948
[B] 02 अक्टूबर 1947
[C] 26 नवम्बर 1949
[D] 26 जनवरी 1950

Que (06):  निम्न राज्यों में से किस एक में से केवल एक ही सदस्य निर्वाचित होकर लोकसभा में आता है ?
[A]  अरूणाचल प्रदेश
[B]  मणिपुर
[C]  सिक्किम
[D] त्रिपुरा

Que (07):   अणुव्रत सि़दांत का प्रतिपादन किया था-
[A] सनातन धर्म
[B] जैन धर्म
[C] शैव धर्म
[D] बौद्ध धर्म

Que (08):  मिलिन्दफन्हों राजा मिलिंद और किस बुद भिक्षु के मध्य संवाद के रूप में है ?
[A] नागसेन
[B] नागार्जुन
[C] कुमारिल भठ्ठ
[D] नागभठ्ठ

Que (09): प्रसिद संत शंख सलीम चिश्ती रहते थे ?
[A] फतेहपुर सीकरी में
[B] अजमेर में
[C] लाहौर में
[D] दिल्ली में

Que (10):  पत्रकार के कर्तव्यों का निर्वहन करते हुए जेल जाने वाला प्रथम भारतीय कौन था ?
[A] बाल गंगाधर तिलक
[B] दादा भाई नौरोजी
[C] सुरेन्द्र नाथ बैनर्जी
[D] मोतीलाल घोष

ANSWER KEY

1.(A)  2.(D)  3.(D)  4.(A)  5.(D)  6.(C)  7.(B)  8.(A)  9.(A)  10.(A)